Preparation for CST Exam

1
Preparation for CST Exam

• Biomedical Sciences
• Diagnostic Procedures
• Surgical Procedures
• Surgical Anatomy

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Biomedical Questions!!!
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• The Biomedical Sciences
• Robotics
• What generation of robots that have been
  developed work without supervision by a human
  controller?
• third generation
• What term is used to refer to performing surgery
  with robotic arms at a distance?
• telesurgery

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• What important component of the computer
  translates the surgeons hand movements to the
  robotic arms?
• micromanipulators
• A robotic arm with Cartesian geometry refers to
  what kind of movement?
• x, y, and z axes

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• What is the technical term for robotic arms?
• mainipulators
• A robot arm that can move in three dimensions is
  referred to as having
• degrees of rotation

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• What important component of the computer
  translates the surgeons hand movements to the
  robotic arms?
• micromanipulators
• A robotic arm with Cartesian geometry refers to
  what kind of movement?
• x, y, and z axes

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• The robotic arms clockwise and counterclockwise
  movements around an axis are referred to as
• degrees of rotation
• A right and left movement of the robotic arm is
  called
• yaw

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• Generally, where on the OR table is the robotic
  arm positioned for surgeries of the lower
  abdomen?
• top (by the patients head)
• What is the term that refers to the type of
  hearing possessed by humans and robots?
• binaural hearing

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• What term refers to the robots ability to
  differentiate between two objects?
• resolution
• What term is used to refer to remotely controlled
  robots?
• telechir

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• What term is used to refer to the rotating
  movement of the robotic arm?
• roll
• When performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy,
  approximately where should the robotic arm be
  positioned on the OR table?
• patients right side mid-thigh

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• When setting the lower limit of the robotic arm,
  what is the rule of thumb for distance from the
  patients skin surface?
• 1 centimeter or less
• When performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy on
  an obese patient, what can be done to creat
  additional space between the elbow of the robotic
  arm and the patient?
• tilt mechanism

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• Answer the next 3 questions based on the
  following case study A surgeon will be
  performing a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication
  and prefers access ports located in the patients
  midline.
• Where should the robotic arm be placed on the
  operating room table?
• left or right side lower abdominal region
• How should the leg be positioned on the side
  where the robotic arm is positioned?
• extended laterally, with the leg supported

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• Once the trocars and manipulator have been
  placed, what position is the operating room table
  placed?
• Reverse Trendelenburg
• The robotic arm should be positioned on the
  operating table prior to positioning the patient.
• False

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• Answer the next 3 questions based on the
  following case study A surgeon is using
  surface-based registration in order to perform a
  difficult resection of a benign tumor of the
  brain.
• What is used to create the initial images of the
  brain?
• magnetic resonance imaging
• In the operating room, what piece of equipment is
  necessary to obtain three-dimensional coordinates
  in order to superimpose the scan-based images of
  the brain on the head of the patient?
• Laser

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• During the surgical procedure, the surgeon is
  able to track the position of the tips of the
  instruments due to the use of the imaging system.
• True
• What term is used to describe the attainment of a
  three-dimensional simulation of the images of a
  patients tissues in order for the surgeon to
  practice prior to the surgical procedure?
• deformable modeling

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• What term refers to robotic vision that is
  analogous to human vision?
• binocular vision
• Which of the following robotic devices requires
  sterilization?
• collar

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• What is the number of degrees of freedom of the
  human arm in which the robotic manipulator is
  compared to?
• 7
• What term refers to the up and down movement of
  the robotic arm?
• pitch

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• A concern in the development of robotic vision is
  that improved sensitivity causes a decrease in
  resolution.
• True
• When performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
  with a robotic arm, what anatomical landmark is
  used to line yup the endoscope?
• umbilicus

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• On the keyboard, what keys can be used for
  shortcuts to commands?
• Function Keys
• Which side or click of the mouse performs the
  majority of its general functions?
• left click

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• What term refers to the openings on the back of
  the CPU used to plug in various computer hardware
  cables?
• ports
• One kilobyte equals _______________?
• 1,000 bytes

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• What device is required in order to connect to
  the internet?
• Modem
• After the computer is turned on, what term is
  used to refer to the general background that
  appears on the monitor?
• desktop

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• Which of the following is highlighted in the
  Start menu on the desktop to quickly access the
  documents submenu?
• opening a document
• Which is used to quickly move up and down within
  a document?
• scroll bar

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• What menu is accessed to Shut Down the computer?
• start menu
• What is recommended for use to protect the
  computer from high electric voltages?
• Surge protector

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• What bar shows documents and applications that
  are open and allows the user to switch between
  them?
• taskbar
• What is the name for the bar that includes
  functions such as Bold, Font Size and
  Underlining?
• formatting toolbar

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• What is the shortcut for enabling the Underline
  function?
• Ctrl-U
• If a toolbar does not appear on the screen, which
  menu contains Toolbars, the function used to add
  them to the screen?
• View

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• To change the style of lettering in a document,
  what function is preformed?
• font function
• On which toolbar is the center function located?
• menu bar

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• Which describes the button used to perform the
  Print Preview function?
• Paper with magnifying glass
• What is the name of the function in which words
  or sentences can be moved from one place in a
  document to another place?
• cut/paste

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• What is the shortcut for performing the Paste
  function?
• Ctrl-v
• Where is the Page Numbering function located in
  the Menu bar?
• Insert

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• When importing an image from the Internet, what
  mouse click should be performed when the arrow is
  over the image?
• right click
• Several computers connected together to a single
  server is called a/an
• Network

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• Within a Web address, what tells the user the
  type of organization that has published the
  information?
• ending of the address
• While using a search engine, how can the user ask
  it to search only for the exact words typed?
• quotation marks

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• Which theory explains electrical flow?
• Electron Theory
• Fill in the blanks
• All ____________ consists of ______________ which
  contain ____________ charged______________.
• Matter, atoms, negatively, electrons

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• The electrons located on the outer orbit of the
  atom are called ______________.
• free electrons
• What term is given to material that easily allows
  the flow of free electrons?
• conductor

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• Electrical current travels by movement of
  __________________.
• free electrons
• Which term defines a material that does not allow
  electricity to easily move through it?
• insulator

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• Which law pertains to electricity?
• Ohms Law
• Which is the best conductor?
• copper

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• Voltage represents the ______________________.
• potential energy of electrons
• Current represents _____________________________.
• the rate of flow of electrons

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• Resistance is used to ___________________________.
  
• restrict the flow of current
• Power is measured in __________________.
• Watts

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• What is the common method of producing
  electricity for electric power?
• magnetism
• Power is __________________________.
• rate of the movement of electrons

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• What term is given to the device that uses the
  electrical energy for a useful purpose?
• load
• What device is used to control the flow of
  electricity?
• switch

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• What should never be removed from a 3-prong plug?
• ground prong
• What device is used to limit current flow?
• resistor

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• In what type of current do electrons flow in one
  direction?
• direct current
• One alternating current cycle is called a
  ____________________.
• hertz

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• A small power drill is identified as having 60
  Hz. What is the interpretation of 60 Hz?
• 60 AC cycles per second
• Radio and TV signals are ____________ waves.
• electromagnetic

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• What type of circuit can produce an electric
  shock?
• isolated
• When using electrosurgery, what device delivers
  the current to the patient?
• active electrode

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• What type of current does electrosurgery utilize?
• alternating current
• When the current passes through the active
  electrode, the energy is converted from
  electrical to _______________.
• thermal

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• What term describes voltage that is high enough
  to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, to
  cause a hole and possibly burn the individual?
• dielectric breakdown
• Lasers, power drills and electrosurgical units
  can produce a ________ of vaporized tissue.
• plume

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• Energy is defined as
• the capacity to do work
• The rate at which work is done is called
• power

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• The energy that an object has due to its position
  or condition is called
• potential
• The force that cause an object to fall due to
  gravity is called
• weight

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• ____________friction is the friction between two
  surfaces at rest.
• static
• An atom is made of neutrons, electrons, and
  ______________.
• protons

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• The products of an objects mass and its velocity
  is called
• momentum
• When all forces acting on an object cancel each
  other out, the object is said to be in
• equilibrium

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• The Law of Inertia is Newtons ____________Law of
  Motion.
• first
• Newtons Second Law of Motion states that if you
  push a cart it will
• accelerate in the direction you are pushing it

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• Electric charge is created by the accumulation of
  ______________ on an object.
• electrons
• Average speed is defined as
• distance/time

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• Acceleration is defined as
• velocity/time
• Changing from one unit of measurement to another
  is called
• conversion factor

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• If there were no air, an elephant would fall
  ____________ as a cotton ball.
• just as fast
• Weightlessness in space is
• due to a constant fall

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• If an object is negatively charged, then it has
• an excess of electrons
• A positively charged object has
• few electrons

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• The unit for measuring radioactivity is the
• Curie
• The force that holds the nucleus of an atom
  together is called the ___________ force.
• nuclear

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• Molecules are composed of combinations of
  ________________.
• atoms
• What kind of gases do living organisms require
  for viability?
• chemical gases

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• ______________ weight equals the sum of the
  atomic weights of the atoms in a molecule.
• Molecular
• When pressure is increased, the volume of a
  confined gas is decreased. What is the name of
  this law?
• Boyles Law

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• What term is given to the warming process that is
  occurring in the earths atmosphere and worsened
  by the release of carbon dioxide?
• greenhouse effect
• What term is used to refer to one sound wave
  cycle per second?
• Hertz

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• What determines if a laser is solid state, gas,
  liquid, or semiconductor?
• gain medium
• What type of laser has the most power output?
• solid state laser

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• Nucleons are composed of subatomic particles
  called
• quarks

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Diagnostics
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Diagnostics

• An AP radiographic film is taken ____.
• front to back

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Diagnostics

• A myelogram is used to ____.
• evaluate the spine

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Diagnostics

• What is used to enhance visualization of
  structures during a diagnostic imaging procedure?
• contrast medium

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Diagnostics

• Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the
  surgeon to view anatomic structures during the
  surgical procedure?
• fluoroscopy

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Diagnostics

• Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the
  ____.
• gallbladder

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Diagnostics

• Ultrasound involves the use of ____.
• high-frequency sound waves

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Diagnostics

• The term staging refers to the ____.
• degree of tumor metastasis

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Diagnostics

• The ____ is the physician who will provide a
  biopsy report
• pathologist

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Diagnostics

• The Gram stain is a technique used to identify a
  ____.
• bacteria

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Diagnostics

• Anaerobic bacteria are able to survive ____.
• without oxygen

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Diagnostics

• Thoracentesis is the removal of ____.
• fluid from the pleural cavity

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Diagnostics

• Electroencephalography is a recording of ____.
• electrical activity of the brain

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Diagnostics

• Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is
  measured with the use of ____.
• pulse oximetry

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Diagnostics

• An estimation of the arterial levels of carbon
  dioxide is determined with the use of ____.
• capnography

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Diagnostics

• Information about the patient's lung capacity,
  resistance, and ventilatory pressure is obtained
  and displayed with the use of ____.
• spirometry

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Diagnostics

• For which purpose does a surgeon use a suture on
  a specimen?
• to identify margins

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Diagnostics

• An anesthesiologist may order plain radiographic
  films of the chest for which purpose?
• lung abnormalities that may interfere with the
  exchange of gases during anesthesia

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Diagnostics

• Nuclear medicine studies are also referred to as
  ____.
• isotope scanning

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Diagnostics

• An otoscope is used for viewing the ____.
• ear

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Diagnostics

• The normal blood value of platelets is ____ x
  103/mm3.
• 130-140

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Diagnostics

• To prevent contamination of the surgical patient
  during an X-ray, the surgical technologist will
  ____.
• cover the X-ray cassette with a cassette cover

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Diagnostic Basics

• produces pictures of body parts in slices good
  diagnostic tool for brain injuries---it is faster
  than MRI and can detect fresh bleeding.
• CAT (Computed Axial Tomography) Scan
• combines CT and radioisotope brain scanning, to
  determine how the brain is functioning by
  highlighting metabolic or chemical activity.
• PET (Positron Emission Tomography)

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Diagnostic Basics (cont.)

• uses two forms of energy to create the image a
  spinning hydrogen atom in a magnetic field, with
  the application of radio waves. Pictures in
  slices are produced better than CT in that
  pictures can be taken from any direction also,
  MRI uses no x-ray radiation. Contrast medium
  for MRI is not iodine based which could prove
  beneficial.
• MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

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Diagnostic Basics (cont.)

• x-rays to locate breast tumors.
• Mammography
• pictures of the spine (replaced by MRI for the
  most part). Contrast media is injected into CSF
  at the lower lumbar level. Useful for clearly
  outlining bone tissue.
• Myelography
• picture taken, amplified, projected in real
  time C-arm used intra-operatively---Angiography,
  Cholangiography, Bone Allignment, Catheter
  Placement, Pacemaker Placement, etc.
• Fluoroscopy

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Diagnostic Basics (cont.)

• utilizes high frequency sound waves the lower
  the frequency, the greater the sound wave
  penetration. Variances in tissue density bounce
  back to the transducer these echoes are
  converted into electrical impulses and provides
  images. Great for examining the heart,
  abdominopelvic structures, and identifying
  carotid artery stenosis. Not used to visualize
  lungs, cannot pass thru structures with air
  great for fetal examination no ionizing
  radiation.
• Ultrasonography

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Diagnostic Basics (cont.)

• two-dimensional views of the heart using beams of
  ultrasonic waves, for cardiac abnormalities
  color dopplers are used to map blood flow.
• Echocardiography
• measures the shift in frequency of a continuous
  ultrasonic wave proportional to the velocity of
  blood flow in vessels transmits sounds.
• Doppler Ultrasonography

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Diagnostic Basics (cont.)

• (Nuclear Medicine) IV injection of radioactive
  isotope prior to study presence of pathogenic
  condition identified by concentration of
  isotopes, hot spots this is performed for bone
  scans.
• Isotope Scanning
• predetermined doses of radiation are used to kill
  cells by interfering with their metabolic
  activity beam or implantable radiation source.
• Radiation Therapy

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General
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General Surgery

• The xiphoid process is the ____ portion of the
  sternum.
• distal

90
General Surgery

• The gallbladder is found in the ____ abdominal
  quadrant.
• right upper

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General Surgery

• Another name for the iliac region of the abdomen
  is ____.
• inguinal

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General Surgery

• The linea alba is found ____.
• medially where abdominal aponeuroses join

93
General Surgery

• The long, vertical, straplike muscle of the
  abdominal wall is the ____.
• rectus abdominis

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General Surgery

• The inner layer of the digestive tract wall is
  called the ____.
• mucosa

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General Surgery

• The three portions of the small intestine are the
  ____.
• duodenum, ileum, and jejunum
  (correct order?)

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General Surgery

• The appendix is attached to the ____.
• cecum

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General Surgery

• What is a function of the omenta?
• limit peritoneal infection

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General Surgery

• Which gland has both exocrine and endocrine
  functions?
• pancreas

99
General Surgery

• The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are
  responsible for the production of ____.
• insulin

100
General Surgery

• In what position is the patient placed when a
  McBurneys incision will be used?
• supine

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General Surgery

• Which type of hernia is located within
  Hesselbachs triangle?
• direct

102
General Surgery

• Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed
  to correct a(n) ____.
• hiatal hernia

103
General Surgery

• Gastrostomy is the ____.
• creation of an opening from the stomach to the
  skin

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General Surgery

• The use of a Penrose drain is often employed
  during inguinal herniorrhaphy to ____.
• retract the spermatic cord

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General Surgery

• The term dysphagia means difficulty ____.
• swallowing

106
General Surgery

• Maloney dilators are used to dilate the ____.
• esophagus

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General Surgery

• A purse-string suture is used ____.
• to tighten or close an opening

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General Surgery

• Which incisional approach is most common for
  appendectomy?
• McBurneys

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General Surgery

• An end ileostomy is created from the ____.
• terminal ileum

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General Surgery

• The term chyme refers to ____.
• a mixture of partially digested food

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General Surgery

• The condition of gallstones is called ____.
• cholelithiasis

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General Surgery

• What is the function of a T-tube?
• drain bile

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General Surgery

• In addition to a major general surgical
  instrumentation set, what instruments will also
  be needed for a cholecystectomy?
• CBD exploration instruments

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General Surgery

• What position is used to displace the abdominal
  contents to enhance the surgeons view of the
  lower abdominal region?
• Trendelenburg

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General Surgery

• What position will the patient be placed in to
  facilitate thyroidectomy?
• supine with the neck hyperextended

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General Surgery

• Insufflation of the abdomen is achieved with the
  use of ____.
• carbon dioxide

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General Surgery

• Hemorrhoids are removed with the patient in the
  ____ position.
• Kraske (Jack-knife)or
• Lithotomy

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General Surgery

• The flow of food and liquids from the stomach to
  the small intestine is controlled by the ____.
• pyloric sphincter

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General Surgery

• The surgical connection of two hollow or tubular
  structures is called a(n) ____.
• anastomosis

120
General Surgery

• The primary indication for a splenectomy is ____.
• trauma

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General Surgery

• During a thyroidectomy, it is important to
  preserve the ____.
• recurrent laryngeal nerve

122
General Surgery

• Once the peritoneum is entered, lap sponges
  should be ____.
• moistened with warm saline

123
General Surgery

• Once the peritoneum is entered, raytec sponges
  should be ____.
• mounted on a ring forceps

124
General Surgery

• A Billroth I or II refers to a(n) ____.
• subtotal gastrectomy

125
General Surgery

• Which suture technique is applied when closing
  the indirect hernia sac?
• purse-string

126
General Surgery

• Which procedure is used to treat cancer of the
  rectum?
• abdominoperineal resection

127
General Surgery Basic Terms and Definitions

• Favorable/non-cancerous specimen
• Benign
• Removal of living tissue, cell, or fluid sample
  for microscopic examination for purpose of
  diagnosis
• Biopsy
• An imperfection from birth
• Congenital Defect
• Cutting a thin piece of frozen tissue for
  microscopic examination
• Frozen Section

128
Terms and Definitions Cont.

• Abnormal enlargement of the male breasts (hormone
  imbalance)
• Gynecomastia
• Protrusion of part of an organ through a defect
  in the supporting structures which normally
  contain it
• Hernia
• Surgical repair of a hernia
• Herniorrhaphy (hernioplasty)
• Area of lower abdomen where direct inguinal
  hernias occur
• Hesselbachs Triangle

129
Terms and Definitions Cont.

• In position localized and noninvasive
• In Situ
• Localized tissue anemia due to obstruction of
  the inflow of arterial blood
• Ischemia
• Surgical opening of the abdomen for an abdominal
  procedure
• Laparotomy
• Exploration of the abdominal cavity with the use
  of an endoscopic instrument
• Laparoscopy

130
Terms and Definitions Cont.

• Tending to infiltrate, metastasize, and produce
  death (cancerous)
• Malignant
• Radiography of the soft tissue of the breast to
  allow identification of various benign and/or
  malignant growths
• Mammography
• Reconstructive surgery of the breast
• Mammoplasty

131
Terms and Definitions Cont.

• Excision of the breast
• Mastectomy
• Transfer of disease from one site to another
• Metastasis
• Localized death of tissue
• Necrosis
• Inflation of the peritoneal cavity with CO2 to
  prevent injury to the abdominal structures during
  laparoscopic surgery
• Pneumoperitoneum
• Condition of physiologic calcium imbalance marked
  by muscle spasms usually associated with
  deficient parathyroid secretion
• Tetany

132
Terms and Definitions Cont.

• Technique for recording the amount of heat
  radiated from the surface of the body revealing
  abnormal cold or hot spots
• Thermography
• Major supporting structure of the posterior
  inguinal floor
• Transversalis Fascia
• Spontaneous new growth of tissue forming an
  abdominal mass
• Tumor
• Diagnostic x-ray technique in which an image is
  produced electrically rather than chemically
• Xeroradiography

133
Types of Hernias Defined

• is a protrusion of peritoneal sac with abdominal
  viscera into the inguinal canal resulting from a
  defect in the transverse fascia.
• Indirect Inguinal (congenital) Hernia
• is where the peritoneal sac bulges through
  Hesselbachs triangle formed by the rectus
  abdominous muscle, inguinal ligament, and deep
  epigastric vein and artery.
• Direct Inguinal (acquired) Hernia

134
Types of Hernias Defined

• protrusion of peritoneum and viscera through the
  femoral ring just below the inguinal ligament due
  to a defect in the transversalis fascia. (Occurs
  more commonly in females. Highly likely to
  incarcerate (abdominal viscera becomes trapped)
  and strangulate (circulation is cut off from
  abdominal viscera trapped in the hernia).
• Femoral Hernia

135
Types of Hernias Defined

• peritoneum and viscera protrude through recti or
  other muscles above the umbilicus.
• Epigastric Hernia
• abdominal contents push up through a weakness in
  the diaphragm into the chest.
• Diaphramatic Hernia
• abdominal viscera protrude through an old
  incision (usually vertical) fascial segments,
  which were separated, are closed in layers and
  may be reinforced with a synthetic mesh.
• Ventral (incisional) Hernia

136
Types of Hernias Defined

• is located between different muscle layers of the
  abdominal wall and may be called interparietal,
  interstitial, or intramuscular very difficult to
  diagnose ultrasonic or CT scanning may be
  necessary may very well be associated with an
  intestinal obstruction.
• Spegilian Hernia
• is established by a synthetic mesh being stapled
  over the hernia (appears as a blind pouch from
  inside the abdomen) through a laparoscope with an
  internal stapling device.
• Laparoscopic Hernia Repair

137

• The proximal portion of the small bowel is
  re-anastomosed to the jejunum (jejunojejunostomy),
  in an end to side fashion.
• Thus, we end up with a continuous alimentary
  tract with an available side branch for an
  anastomosis to another organ.
• Roux-en-Y

138

• Surgical formation of a passage between the
  gallbladder and the duodenum
• Cholecystoduodenostomy

139

• Surgical formation of a passage between the
  gallbladder and the jejunum
• Cholecystojejunostomy

140

• Surgical formation of a passage between the
  common bile duct and the duodenum
• Choledochoduodenostomy

141

• Surgical formation of a passage between the
  common bile duct and the jejunum
• Choledochojejunostomy

142
OB-GYN Review
143
OB-GYN

• The uterine lining is called the ____.
• endometrium

144
OB-GYN

• The ligament that supports the bulk of the ovary
  is called the ____ ligament.
• broad

145
OB-GYN

• The uterine tubes are contained within the ____
  ligament.
• broad

146
OB-GYN

• The uterine appendages are the ____.
• ovaries and fallopian tubes

147
OB-GYN

• What causes the descent of the fetus through the
  pelvic canal?
• uterine contractions

148
OB-GYN

• In which position is the patient generally placed
  into for a D and C?
• lithotomy

149
OB-GYN

• What accessories are needed for the operating
  room table in order to place the patient in
  lithotomy position?
• stirrups and foot holders

150
OB-GYN

• The term used to describe abnormal labor or
  childbirth is ____.
• dystocia

151
OB-GYN

• The Pfannenstiel incision is which type of
  incision?
• lower transverse abdominal

152
OB-GYN

• Where is the most common site for ectopic
  pregnancy?
• fallopian tube

153
OB-GYN

• The absence or abnormal stoppage of the menses is
  called ____.
• amenorrhea

154
OB-GYN

• The most significant cause of morbidity during a
  cesarean section is ____.
• anesthetic problems

155
OB-GYN

• A DeLee suction device is used ____.
• to clear the neonates airway in the presence of
  meconium

156
OB-GYN

• A Foley catheter is used routinely during pelvic
  procedures to ____.
• decompress the bladder to prevent injury

157
OB-GYN

• The Trendelenburg position is used to prevent
  injury and enhance visualization by displacing
  the abdominal contents ____.
• superiorly

158
OB-GYN

• Total abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal
  of which structure(s)?
• uterus

159
OB-GYN

• Cerclage is performed to ____.
• close an incompetent cervix

160
OB-GYN

• Tuboplasty is performed to ____.
• restore tubal patency

161
OB-GYN

• The fundus is the ____.
• domelike portion of the uterus

162
OB-GYN

• The fornix is the ____.
• annular recess created by the cervical-vaginal
  junction (page 501)

163
OB-GYN

• A Pap smear is performed to rule out ____.
• cervical dysplasia

164
OB-GYN

• Endometriosis is ____.
• an abnormal implantation of endometrial tissue

165
OB-GYN

• In which position is the patient placed for a
  total abdominal hysterectomy?
• supine

166
OB-GYN

• Marsupialization indicates that ____.
• a pouch is created

167
OB-GYN

• A fibroid is a benign tumor found in the ____.
• myometrium

168
OB-GYN

• Indigo carmine is used following tuboplasty to
  demonstrate ____.
• tubal patency

169
OB-GYN

• The term D and C represents ____.
• dilation and curettage

170
OB-GYN

• Cystocele is prolapse of the ____.
• bladder into the vaginal vault

171
OB-GYN

• A curette is a surgical instrument used to ____.
• remove tissue by scraping

172
OB-GYN

• What is the most common reason for the
  performance of a cesarean section?
• failure to progress

173
OB-GYN

• Salpingectomy is the removal of the ____.
• fallopian tube

174
OB-GYN

• The perineum in the female is the area between
  which two structures?
• vaginal opening and anus

175
OB-GYN

• Which name is given to the ligament that suspends
  the uterus anteriorally?
• cardinal

176
OB-GYN

• A common drug given to induce labor is ____.
• oxytocin

177
OB-GYN

• What is the best suture choice for closing an
  episiotomy?
• chromic (absorbable)

178
OB-GYN

• Which instruments are typically placed onto the
  fascia during a cesarean section?
• Kocher

179
OB-GYN

• What is the surgical procedure that involves the
  placement of a large-diameter Dacron or Mersilene
  tape around the cervix at the internal os?
• Shirodkar procedure

180
OB-GYN

• What is another name given to an anterior and
  posterior repair?
• colporrhaphy

181
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal canal
  _______________ .
• Cystocele
• Herniation of the rectum into the vaginal canal
  _______________ .
• Rectocele
• Presence of functioning endometrial tissue in
  places where it is not normally found
  ________________ .
• Endometriosis

182
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Part of the product of conception has been
  retained in the uterus _____________
  abortion.
• Incomplete
• Patient is about to abort ____________
  abortion.
• Imminent
• An abortion occurring without having been induced
  ______________ abortion.
• Spontaneous

183
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Placenta is prematurely separated from the wall
  of the uterus ?
• Abruptio Placenta
• Placenta is abnormally implanted in the lower
  uterine segment and may completely cover the os
  cervix ?
• Placenta Previa
• Painful or difficult labor ?
• Dystocia

184
REVIEW OB/GYN

• At birth, buttocks are presented first?
• Breech Presentation
• Feet are presented first?
• Footling Presentation
• The mothers head is too small to accommodate the
  head of the fetus?
• Cephalopelvic Disproportion

185
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Fetus is presented crosswize?
• Transverse Presentation
• Fertilized Ovum becomes implanted outside the
  uterus?
• Ectopic Pregnancy
• Absence of menstruation?
• Amenorrhea
• Painful or difficult menstruation?
• Dysmenorrhea

186
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Excessive bleeding during mentruation?
• Menorrhagia
• Active uterine bleeding at time other than during
  menstruation?
• Metrorrhagia
• Staining the vaginal vault and cervical squamous
  epithelium with an iodine solution to pinpoint
  abnormal tissues which do not stain brown as
  normal tissues do?
• Schillers Test

187
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Removal of small pieces of tissues with a
  cervical biopsy forceps?
• Punch Biopsy
• Endoscopic visualization of pelvic organs and
  adjacent structures in the peritoneal cavity
  through a small incision in the posterior vaginal
  cul-de-sac?
• Culdoscopy
• Insertion of a spinal needle into the cul-de-sac
  for aspiration of any fluid, blood, or pus
  collected there?
• Culdocentesis

188
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Introduction of Carbon Dioxide into the
  uterocervical canal to check for tubal patency in
  the evaluation of infertility?
• Rubins Test
• Insertion of a water-soluble radiopaque dye into
  the cervical canal to study the structure and
  function of the uterus and tubes in the
  evaluation of infertility?
• Hysterosalpingography

189
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Removal of an ovary?
• Oophorectomy
• Removal of an ovarian cyst?
• Oophorocystectomy
• Suspension of the bladder to the symphysis pubis
  to correct stress incontinence?
• Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz

190
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Removal of fibromyomas from the uterine wall for
  pressure symptoms in women desiring children?
• Myomectomy
• Removal of a tube and all or part of the
  associated ovary?
• Salpingo-oophorectomy
• Removal of a fallopian tube?
• Salpingectomy

191
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Postconceptual placement of a collar-type
  ligature at the level of the internal os to close
  it for incompetence of the cervix?
• Shriodkar (or MacDonald) cerclage
• Instrument measure the depth of the uterus during
  a D C?
• Uterine Sound
• An iodine staining of the cervix to determine
  abnormal cell growth?
• Schillers Test

192
REVIEW OB/GYN

• A radical procedure involving the reproductive,
  gastrointestinal, genitourinary, vascular, and
  lymphatic systems?
• Pelvic Exenteration
• Radiologic examination of the uterus and tubes?
• Hysterosalpingogram

193
REVIEW OB/GYN

• Removing one versus two?
• Unilateral versus Bilateral
• Lugols Solution is primarily?
• Iodine
• Large glands located on either side of the distal
  vagina in the labia majora?
• Bartholins Glands
• A herniation of the cul-de-sac of Douglas (the
  intestines enter the vagina)
• Enterocele

194
REVIEW OB/GYN

• The upper back of the infants head is presented
  first?
• Vertex
• When you have two specimens during a D C?
• Fractional Curettage
• What type of fertility procedures requires the
  patient to have at least one patent fallopian
  tube?
• Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT)

195
(No Transcript)
196
Ophthy Questions?

• Space bound anteriorly by the cornea and
  posteriorly by the front of the iris is filled
  with aqueous humor?
• Anterior Chamber
• Small lump on the inner or outer surface of the
  eyelid caused by an inflammatory reaction to
  material trapped inside an oil-secreting gland in
  the eyelid?
• Chalazion (Kal-a-zion)

197
Ophthy Questions?

• Pertaining to tears or the lacrimal apparatus of
  the eye?
• Dacro-
• Use of high frequency electromagnetic radiation,
  electric current, or ultrasonic waves to
  coagulate or destroy body tissue with heat?
• Diathermy

198
Ophthy Questions?

• En bloc removal of a structure as in the globe
  from the orbit?
• Enucleation
• External muscles (6) of the eye that control eye
  movement?
• Extrinsic Muscles
• Internal muscle of the eye ciliary muscle or
  ciliary body
• Intrinsic Muscle

199
Ophthy Questions?

• Opening in the isis?
• Iridotomy
• Pertaining to the cornea?
• Kerato-
• Pertaining to tears?
• Lacrimal
• Instrument with which the vitreous is cut and
  aspirated?
• Ocutome

200
Ophthy Questions?

• Right eye Left eye each eye (both)?
• O.D. O.S. O.U.
• Space bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the
  retina is filled with vitreous humor and is the
  larger compartment of the eye?
• Posterior Chamber
• Behind the globe?
• Retrobulbar

201
Ophthy Questions?

• Deviation of the position of the eye as in
  cross-eyed?
• Strabismus
• Cutting instrument for the purpose of removing a
  circular area?
• Trephine
• Coat, covering, or lining?
• Tunic

202
Ophthy Questions?

• The most common cause of retinal detachment is
• Trauma
• Aging
• Inflammation
• Glaucoma

203
Ophthy Questions?

• Trauma is the most common cause of retinal
  detachment.

204
Ophthy Questions?

• A fleshy encroachment of the conjuctiva onto the
  cornea is a/an
• Pterygium
• Chalazion
• Strabismus
• Ecchymosis

205
Ophthy Questions?

• Pterygium is a fleshy encroachment of conjuctiva
  onto the cornea.

206
Ophthy Questions?

• Blockage of the canal of Schlemm will cause
• Detached Retina
• Strabismus
• Chalazion
• Glaucoma

207
Ophthy Questions?

• Glaucoma is caused by the blockage of the canal
  of Schlemm or excessive production of aqueous
  humor.

208
Ophthy Questions?

• An uneven curvature of the cornea is known as
• Myopia
• Strabismus
• Astigmatism
• Hyperopia

209
Ophthy Questions?

• Astigmatism is an uneven curvature of the cornea.

210
Ophthy Questions?

• The procedure of choice for a detached retina is
• Scleral buckling
• Vitrectomy
• Keratotomy
• Keratoplasty

211
Ophthy Questions?

• Scleral buckling is the common surgical procedure
  to treat a detached retina.

212
Ophthy Questions?

• Removal of the entire eyeball is called
• Evisceration
• Exenteration
• Evacuation
• Enucleation

213
Ophthy Questions?

• Evisceration is removal of the contents of the
  eye, leaving the shrunken remnants of the eye.
  (same for exenteration) Enucleation is removal
  of an entire eyeball.

214
Ophthy Questions?

• The inability to direct both eyes at the same
  object is called
• Strabismus
• Glaucoma
• Chalazion
• Vitreoretinopathy

215
Ophthy Questions?

• Strabisbus is the inability to direct both eyes
  at the same object due to lack of coordination of
  the extraocular muscles.

216
Ophthy Questions?

• Intraocular pressure is measured with the use of
  a/an
• Caliper
• Ophthalmoscope
• Tonometer
• Ocutome

217
Ophthy Questions?

• A tonometer measures intraocular pressure.

218
Ophthy Questions?

• Which instrument would be used during a
  keratoplasty?
• Kerrison Rongeur
• Bowman probe
• Cottingham punch
• Kilner hook

219
Ophthy Questions?

• The Cottingham punch is used to create the
  correct size of the donor cornea during a
  keratoplasty.

220
Ophthy Questions?

• Which of the following is not a procedure for
  treatment of glaucoma?
• Goniotomy
• Iridectomy
• Vitrectomy
• Cyclodialysis

221
Ophthy Questions?

• removal of obstruction for the free flow of
  aqueous humor.
• Goniotomy
• removal of portion of iris aqueous humor
  pressure release.
• Iridectomy
• creation of new opening between the anterior
  chamber and superchoroidal space for the escape
  of aqueous humor.
• Cyclodialysis
• is removal of a portion or all of the vitreous
  gel not for treating glaucoma.
• Vitrectomy

222
Ophthy Questions?

• The procedure performed to improve the vision of
  patients with myopia (nearsightedness can see
  things close up)?
• Radial Keratotomy
• Keratoplasty
• Scleral Buckling
• Vitrectomy

223

• Radial Keratotomy

224
Ophthy Questions?

• A condition that causes the sudden onset of the
  appearance of floating spots before the eyes is
• Scleral tumor
• Retinal detachment
• Epiretinal membrane
• Vitreous hemorrhage

225
Ophthy Questions?

• The sudden on-set of the appearance of floating
  spots before the eye is retinal detachment.

226
Ophthy Questions?

• Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment
  the lens?
• Diathermy
• Cryotherapy
• Irrigation/aspiration
• Phacoemulsification

227
Ophthy Questions?

• Phacoemulsification uses ultrasonic energy to
  fragment the lens, while irrigating and
  aspirating the fragments.

228
Ophthy Questions?

• Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
• Carbon Dioxide
• Nd YAG
• Argon
• Eximer

229
Ophthy Questions?

• The argon laser is used because the beam travels
  through clear tissues without heating them,
  making it ideal for use on retinal disorders.

230
Ophthy Questions?

• Which drug is a miotic?
• Atropine
• Pilocarpine
• Phenylephrine
• Tropicamide

231

• Pilocarpine

232
Ophthy Questions?

• Which instrument is used during a
  dacryocystorhinostomy?
• Scleral hooks
• Keratome
• Oscillating saw
• Buckle

233
Ophthy Questions?

• During a DCR, the ostium (small opening) is
  created using punches, a powered burr, or a small
  oscillating saw.

234
Ophthy Questions?

• Which muscle is involved in resection for
  strabismus correction?
• Superior rectus
• Inferior rectus
• Medial rectus
• Lateral rectus

235
Ophthy Questions?

• When performing a resection for the correction of
  strabismus, a portion of the lateral rectus
  muscle is excised and the two ends are
  reanastomosed.

236
Ophthy Questions?

• Which instrument is used to make the corneal cut
  during a keratoplasty?
• Corneal trephine
• Westcott scissors
• Beaver blade
• Sphenoidal punch

237
Ophthy Questions?

• A (Corneal) trephine is a cutting instrument that
  is placed on the cornea and makes the incision
  around the cornea and into the anterior chamber.

238
ENT
239
ENT

• What is a cholesteatoma?
• benign cyst in the mastoid cavity

240
ENT

• What does the term apnea mean?
• not breathing

241
ENT

• What is the superior opening into the larynx
  called?
• glottis

242
ENT

• Which term is commonly referred to as the throat?
• pharynx

243
ENT

• Hemorrhage from the nose is described as ____.
• epistaxis

244
ENT

• What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage
  that forms a ridge between the right and left
  main stem bronchi?
• carina

245
ENT

• Otosclerosis is the term used to describe ____.
• fixation of the stapes

246
ENT

• The pinna is also known as the ____.
• auricle

247
ENT

• Which tonsils are removed during the procedure
  called tonsillectomy?
• palatine

248
ENT

• Which tonsils are removed during the procedure
  called adenoidectomy?
• pharyngeal

249
ENT

• What are the conchae?
• osseous ridges on the lateral walls of the nasal
  cavity

250
ENT

• What structures are removed during UPPP?
• tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft
  palate

251
ENT

• Name the structure that separates the outer and
  middle ear.
• tympanic membrane

252
ENT

• The footplate of the stapes rests upon the ____.
• oval window

253
ENT

• What fluid fills the spaces of the bony
  labyrinth?

254
ENT

• The seventh cranial nerve is also called the
  ____.
• facial nerve

255
ENT

• An otoscope is used to view the ____.
• outer ear

256
ENT

• What is the name of the structure that divides
  the two chambers of the nasal cavity?
• septum

257
ENT

• What is the name of the procedure that is used to
  change the external appearance of the nose?
• rhinoplasty

258
ENT

• Which portion of the pharynx is the most
  superior?
• nasopharynx

259
ENT

• Which salivary gland is the largest and is
  located on the lateral sides of the face anterior
  to the external ear?
• parotid

260
ENT Questions!!!

• Excision and resection of the septum to correct
  any deviation as the result of injury or a
  congenital deformity designed to improve the
  functioning capabilities of the nose?
• Septoplasty
• Removal of the diseased portion of the middle
  turbinate, ethmoidal cells, and diseased tissue
  in the nasal fossa through a nasal or external
  approach?
• Ethmoidectomy

261
ENT Questions!!!

• Removal of nasal or sinus polyps to improve the
  patients breathing ability?
• Polypectomy
• Reconstruction of the nose to correct any
  deformities designed to improve the cosmetic
  appearance of the nose?
• Rhinoplasty
• Manipulation and mobilization of injured nasal
  bones and septal cartilage to restore the noses
  former appearance and functioning ability?
• Repair of Nasal Fracture

262
ENT Questions!!!

• Creation of a new passageway between the
  maxillary sinuses and the nasal cavity to
  establish drainage and to remove any diseased
  tissue, polyps, or tumors incision is made in
  the oral mucous membrane above the canine teeth
  called the canine fossa?
• Caldwell-Luc

263
ENT Questions!!!

• Creation of a new passageway between the frontal
  sinuses and the nasal cavity to establish
  drainage and to remove any diseased tissue,
  polyps, or tumors incision is made externally,
  above the eye?
• Killian Operation
• Creation of a new passageway for drainage and
  removal of any diseased tissue in the sphenoidal
  sinuses incision is made through an intranasal
  or external approach?
• Sphenoidectomy

264
ENT Questions!!!

• Three scroll-like bones which project medially
  from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?
• Nasal Conchae
• Air-filled space in the skull which opens into
  the nasal cavity?
• Paranasal Sinus
• Any disorder or perversion of the sense of smell?
• Parosmia
• Inflammation of the nasal mucosa?
• Rhinitis

265
ENT Questions!!!

• Bony (cartilaginous) partition dividing the nasal
  cavity into two nasal fossae?
• Nasal Septum
• Nostril?
• Naris
• Greek combining form indicating the nose?
• Rhino
• Pertaining to the sense of smell?
• Olfactory
• Hemorrhage from the nose nosebleed?
• Epistaxis

266
ENT Questions!!!

• Used for postauricular incisions to expose the
  mastoid area?
• Mastoid Retractor (Jansen)
• Used to grasp tissue of foreign objects in the
  ear canal, to pack the ear canal postoperatively,
  or to grasp tissue in the mastoidectomy
  procedure angular or bayonet shaped?
• Ear forceps, thumb style (Lucae, Wilde, Blake)

267
ENT Questions!!!

• Used to elevate the periosteum prior to use of a
  drill and bits for exposing the middle ear?
• Elevator (Lempert)
• Used to provide visualization into the ear canal
  (endaural approach) several sizes are available
  to fit different sizes and shapes of ear canals?
• Ear Specula (Boucheron)

268
ENT Questions!!!

• Used on myringotomy to grasp PE tubes and foreign
  objects may also be used for grasping other
  structures such as stapes when it is to be
  removed?
• Ear Forceps, alligator type (Hartmann)
• Used primarily to remove cerumen usually come in
  a set of different sizes?
• Ear curette (Buck)
• Used to make an incision into the eardrum may be
  disposable?
• Ear Knife (Sexton, Bistoury)

269
ENT Questions!!!

• Any procedure performed to repair defects in the
  tympanic membrane and/or middle ear structures?
• Tympanoplasty
• Reconstruction of the outer and middle parts of
  the ear by means of a new drum of skin flap or
  creation of a new window into the internal ear
  mechanism performed on patients who have a
  hearing loss resulting from otosclerosis?
• Fenestration Procedure

270
ENT Questions!!!

• Placement of miniature external sound processing
  disc which bypasses external and middle ear to
  stimulate the cochlea?
• Bone conduction implantation
• Incision of the tympanic membrane under direct
  vision to treat acute otitis media or to release
  fluid in the middle ear PE tubes are frequently
  inserted through the tympanic membrane in
  connection with this procedure?
• Myringotomy

271
ENT Questions!!!

• Removal of air cells of the mastoid process,
  without involving the middle ear or external
  canal?
• Simple Mastoidectomy
• Removal of the mastoid air cells and the
  posterior wall of the external ear canal to
  provide drainage from the mastoid to the canal
  preserves the tympanic membrane and the middle
  ear ossicles?
• Modified Radical Mastoidectomy

272
ENT Questions!!!

• Creation of an opening into the vestibule of the
  labyrinth and reestablishment of a functioning
  linkage between the incus and the inner ear
  performed on patients who have a hearing loss
  resulting from fixation of the stapes?
• Stapes Mobilization

273
ENT Questions!!!

• Greek word pertaining to ear?
• Oto
• Latin word pertaining to ear?
• Aural
• Sensation of moving around in space or of having
  objects move around you makes it difficult to
  maintain equilibrium?
• Vertigo

274
ENT Questions!!!

• Condition characterized by chronic progressive
  deafness caused by formation of spongy bone,
  especially around the oval window with resulting
  immobility and fixation of the stapes?
• Otosclerosis
• Latin word pertaining to the sense of hearing?
• Auditory

275
ENT Questions!!!

• Inflammation of the air cells of the mastoid
  process?
• Mastoiditis
• Study of the ear, its functions, and diseases?
• Otology
• Hearing loss caused by a defect in the inner ear
  resulting from damage to nerve tissue and/or
  sensory paths to the brain?
• Sensorineural loss

276
ENT Questions!!!

• Acuteness or sharpness of hearing?
• Auditory acuity
• Transmission of sound waves through the
  conducting media of air or bone?
• Conduction
• Inflammation of the middle ear?
• Otitis Media
• Subjective ringing or tinkling sound in the ear?
• Tinnitus

277
ENT Questions!!!

• Disorder of the membranous labyrinth of the inner
  ear with symptoms including progressive deafness,
  tinnitus, dizziness, and sensation of fullness or
  pressure in the ears?
• Menieres Disease
• Small, drainage tubes placed in the tympanic
  membrane to prevent the accumulation of fluid in
  the middle ear?
• PE Tubes
• Pressure Equalization Tubes
• Any small bone, especially one of the three small
  bones of the ear?
• Ossicle

278
ENT Questions!!!

• Intervening space between the vocal cords?
• Glottis
• Membranous, fibrous bands stretched across the
  hollow interior of the larynx which vibrate to
  produce sound?
• Vocal Cords
• Small, leaf-shaped structure located immediately
  posterior to the root of the tongue which covers
  the entrance of the larynx when swallowing, thus
  preventing food or liquids from entering the
  airway?
• Epiglottis

279
ENT Questions!!!

• Lymphoid tissue located in the oropharyngeal
  region of the pharynx behind and below the
  pillars of the fauces?
• Palatine Tonsils
• Musculomembranous structure extending from the
  base of the skull to the area where it