AVIATION SAFETY REVIEW

1
AVIATION SAFETY REVIEW

• Charles W. Chesnut

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Topics

1. Pilot Challenge
2. Regulations
3. V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings
4. Emergency Procedures
5. Thunderstorms
6. Operations at Towered Airports
7. Airport Lighting VFR
8. Tailwheel Operations
9. Ups and Downs of Takeoffs and Landings
10. Flight Review
QUIT
3
Pilot Challenge
4
1. Are winds aloft forecasted relative to true or
magnetic north?

• True
• Magnetic

5
1. Are winds aloft forecasted relative to true or
magnetic north?

• True
• Magnetic
• Winds aloft are forecast in true direction. Keep
  this in mind when flight planning, as you should
  figure in the wind correction angle before adding
  or subtracting the magnetic variation from the
  planned course.

6
2. What is an isobar?

• A taxiway marking denoting the barrier between a
  movement area and a non-movement area
• A line connecting areas of equal/constant
  barometric pressure
• A line connecting areas of equal/constant
  temperature
• A line of magnetic variation

7
2. What is an isobar?

• A taxiway marking denoting the barrier between a
  movement area and a non-movement area
• A line connecting areas of equal/constant
  barometric pressure
• A line connecting areas of equal/constant
  temperature
• A line of magnetic variation
• An isobar is used on weather charts to connect
  areas of equal barometric pressure. They can be
  helpful in showing the intensity of the pressure
  gradient (which correlates to wind speed) and the
  general direction of the wind flow (parallel to
  the isobars).

8
3. The stall speed in landing configuration is
indicated on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
of the ________ arc.

• White
• Green
• Yellow

9
3. The stall speed in landing configuration is
indicated on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
of the ________ arc.

• White
• Green
• Yellow
• The stall speed in landing configuration (VSO) is
  depicted on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
  of white arc.
• The bottom of the green arc shows the stalling
  speed in the clean configuration (VS1).
• The yellow arc denotes the caution range

10
4. Nighttime, as applicable to pilot currency for
carrying passengers, is defined as

• Sunset to sunrise
• One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
  
• 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes
  before civil twilight
• 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before
  sunrise

11
4. Nighttime, as applicable to pilot currency for
carrying passengers, is defined as

• Sunset to sunrise
• One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
  
• 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes
  before civil twilight
• 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before
  sunrise
• As applicable to pilot currency for carrying
  passengers, nighttime is defined as one hour
  after sunset to one hour before sunrise, as
  stated in FAR 61.57(b)(1).

12
5. According to FAR 61.60, if you change your
permanent mailing address, you must notify the
FAA within ________ days in order to exercise the
privileges of your certificate.

• 30
• 60
• 90
• 120

13
5. According to FAR 61.60, if you change your
permanent mailing address, you must notify the
FAA within ________ days in order to exercise the
privileges of your certificate.

• 30
• 60
• 90
• 120
• According to FAR 61.60, you must notify the FAA
  within 30 days of a change in permanent mailing
  address.

14
6. What is magnetic variation?

• The angular difference between true north and
  magnetic north
• The corrections shown on the compass card that
  account for magnetic interference from the
  avionics and engine
• The tendency of a heading indicator to precess
  over time

15
6. What is magnetic variation?

• The angular difference between true north and
  magnetic north
• The corrections shown on the compass card that
  account for magnetic interference from the
  avionics and engine
• The tendency of a heading indicator to precess
  over time
• Magnetic variation is the term used to describe
  the angular difference between true north and
  magnetic north, and should be used in flight
  planning to determine magnetic courses and
  headings. The corrections noted on a compass card
  refer to magnetic deviation.

16
7. In the Northern Hemisphere, on an easterly or
westerly heading, a magnetic compass will
indicate a turn to the _________ when ________ .

• north, decelerating
• north, accelerating
• south, accelerating

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7. In the Northern Hemisphere, on an easterly or
westerly heading, a magnetic compass will
indicate a turn to the _________ when ________ .

• north, decelerating
• north, accelerating
• south, accelerating
• When on an easterly or westerly heading, a
  magnetic compass will indicate a turn to the
  north when accelerating. Remember the memory
  device "ANDS" - Accelerate North, Decelerate
  South.

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8. A "fouled plug" is a spark plug that _____ .

• has been damaged by detonation and does not spark
  
• is beyond its useful life and in need of
  replacement
• is inhibited by lead or carbon deposits

19
8. A "fouled plug" is a spark plug that _____ .

• has been damaged by detonation and does not spark
  
• is beyond its useful life and in need of
  replacement
• is inhibited by lead or carbon deposits
• A fouled plug refers to a spark plug that has
  lead or carbon running engine, run the engine at
  full throttle briefly with the mixture leaned to
  burn off any contamination deposits which prevent
  it from firing properly. A common cause of
  fouling is running the engine too rich,
  especially during taxi. If the magneto check
  reveals a rough, and try the magneto check again.
  If the engine runs smoothly during the second mag
  check, the problem is resolved. If not, it's best
  to have a mechanic take a look.

20
9. Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual
inspection?

• Yes
• No

21
9. Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual
inspection?

• Yes
• No
• A 100-hour inspection will not count for an
  annual inspection, but an annual inspection will
  count for a 100-hour inspection. According to FAR
  91.409(b), 100-hour checks are only required if
  the aircraft is to be used for flight training or
  carrying passengers for hire.

22
10. An ATC clearance to "taxi to runway
one-eight" means that you may cross other runways
that intersect the taxi route to runway one-eight.

• True
• False

23
10. An ATC clearance to "taxi to runway
one-eight" means that you may cross other runways
that intersect the taxi route to runway one-eight.

• True
• False
• Unless the tower specifies you must hold short, a
  clearance to taxi to a runway means that you may
  cross other runways that intersect the taxi
  route.

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End of quiz
25
Regulations
26
1. You have ____ days to inform the FAA Airmen
Certification Branch of a change of address.

• 30
• 60
• 90
• 120

27
1. You have ____ days to inform the FAA Airmen
Certification Branch of a change of address.

• 30
• 60
• 90
• 120
• Per Part 61.60, pilots have 30 days to inform the
  FAA Airmen Certification Branch of a change of
  address. If you fail to do so, you may not
  exercise the privileges of your certificate(s)
  until you provide your current address.

28
2. You must have a current medical certificate to
exercise the privileges of any airman
certificate.

• True
• False

29
2. You must have a current medical certificate to
exercise the privileges of any airman
certificate.

• True
• False
• FAR 61.3(c)(2) describes several instances when
  current medical certificates are not required.
  For example, CFIs may exercise the privileges of
  their certificates without a current medical,
  provided they are not acting as PIC. Also, sport
  pilots are not required to hold a current
  medical, which is one of the attractive features
  of that certificate. However, sport pilots must
  have a valid U.S. driver's license, and may not
  have been denied (or know they have a condition
  that would prevent the issuance of) a medical
  certificate, had the most recently issued medical
  certificate revoked, or a special-issuance
  medical withdrawn.

30
3. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or
ground instructor certificate is valid for ____
days.

• 60
• 90
• 120
• 180

31
3. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or
ground instructor certificate is valid for ____
days.

• 60
• 90
• 120
• 180
• A temporary certificate is valid for 120 days, as
  specified in FAR 61.17. If your temporary
  certificate is about to expire and you haven't
  received a permanent certificate, you should
  contact the local FAA flight standards district
  office (FSDO) to request an extension or to have
  the temporary certificate reissued.

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4. Your first-class medical certificate expired
12 months ago. In order to exercise private pilot
privileges, you must ____.

• Renew the first-class medical certificate
• Obtain a second-class medical certificate
• Obtain a third-class medical certificate
• None of the above

33
4. Your first-class medical certificate expired
12 months ago. In order to exercise private pilot
privileges, you must ____.

• Renew the first-class medical certificate
• Obtain a second-class medical certificate
• Obtain a third-class medical certificate
• None of the above
• You needn't do anything. A first-class medical
  certificate that expired 12 months ago is still
  valid for exercising the privileges of a private
  pilot certificate. Here's why A first-class
  medical (required for ATPs) is valid for six
  months. If a pilot chooses not to renew the
  first-class certificate during this time, it
  reverts to second-class privileges (required for
  commercial pilots) for the following six months.
  At that point, the certificate continues to
  provide third-class medical privileges (required
  for private pilots) for another 12 to 24 months,
  depending on whether the pilot was over or under
  age 40 on the date of the exam. For more
  information, see FAR 61.23 or AOPA's Medical
  Certification Center. Note For pilots under age
  40, the FAA recently proposed increasing the
  duration of first-class medical certificates
  (from six to 12 months) and third-class medical
  certificates (from 36 to 60 months).

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5. A flight review must include a minimum of ____
hour(s) of ground training and ____ hours(s) of
flight time.

• One one
• One two
• Two one
• Two two

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5. A flight review must include a minimum of ____
hour(s) of ground training and ____ hours(s) of
flight time.

• One one
• One two
• Two one
• Two two
• As specified by FAR 61.56, a flight review
  consists of a minimum of one hour of ground
  training and one hour of flight training. Note
  that these are minimum times and many flight
  reviews take longer. Also, the requirements of
  FAR 61.56 can be met in ways other than a flight
  review, such as acquiring a new rating or
  certificate or completing a phase of the FAA's
  pilot proficiency award program (Wings).

36
6. Federal aviation regulations require pilots to
log every flight in which they served as PIC.

• True
• False

37
6. Federal aviation regulations require pilots to
log every flight in which they served as PIC.

• True
• False
• According to FAR 61.51, you must log only that
  time used for training for a rating or
  certificate, or to satisfy recent experience
  requirements. You do not need to record any other
  time in your logbook, though pilots may also
  record flight time to satisfy insurance
  requirements or simply to have a record of their
  flight time and flying experiences.

38
7. You have ____ days to retake the relevant
portions of a failed practical test (check ride)
before having to retake it in its entirety.

• 30
• 60
• 90
• 120

39
7. You have ____ days to retake the relevant
portions of a failed practical test (check ride)
before having to retake it in its entirety.

• 30
• 60
• 90
• 120
• FAR 61.43(f)(1) specifies that you must retake
  the relevant portions of the flight test within
  60 days. After 60 days, you'll have to retake the
  entire checkride.

40
8. A complex endorsement is required to act as
PIC of an airplane that has retractable landing
gear and ____.

• An engine of more than 200 horsepower
• A controllable-pitch
• Flaps
• A and B
• B and C

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8. A complex endorsement is required to act as
PIC of an airplane that has retractable landing
gear and ____.

• An engine of more than 200 horsepower
• A controllable-pitch
• Flaps
• A and B
• B and C
• According to FAR 61.31(e), a complex aircraft has
  retractable landing gear, a controllable-pitch
  propeller, and flaps. (Seaplanes need only flaps
  and a controllable-pitch propeller to be
  considered complex.) A specific endorsement from
  an authorized flight instructor is required to
  act as PIC of complex airplanes.

42
9. Takeoffs and full-stop landings qualify toward
night currency if they take place ____.

• In the absence of a full moon
• Between sunset and sunrise
• At least 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes
  before sunrise
• At least one hour after sunset and one hour
  before sunrise

43
9. Takeoffs and full-stop landings qualify toward
night currency if they take place ____.

• In the absence of a full moon
• Between sunset and sunrise
• At least 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes
  before sunrise
• At least one hour after sunset and one hour
  before sunrise
• FAR 61.57(b) states that, in order to act as PIC
  of an aircraft carrying passengers during the
  period beginning one hour after sunset and ending
  one hour before sunrise, you must have made at
  least three takeoffs and three landings to a full
  stop during this period within the preceding 90
  days.

44
10. A private pilot is permitted to share no more
than half of the operating costs of a flight
(e.g., rental fees, fuel), regardless of the
number of passengers.

• True
• False

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10. A private pilot is permitted to share no more
than half of the operating costs of a flight
(e.g., rental fees, fuel), regardless of the
number of passengers.

• True
• False
• The proportion of total costs you are permitted
  to share varies with the number of passengers.
  According to FAR 61.113 (c), a private pilot may
  not pay less than the pro rata share of the
  operating expenses of a flight with passengers.
  In other words, if you fly with only one other
  person, you have to pay at least half. But fly
  with two or three passengers, and you may pay as
  little as one-third or one-fourth of the costs,
  respectively, without violating the regulations

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End of quiz
47
V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings
48
1. The green arc on the airspeed indicator
denotes the _____ range

• Flap operating
• Landing gear extended
• Maximum airbrake
• Normal operating

49
1. The green arc on the airspeed indicator
denotes the _____ range

• Flap operating
• Landing gear extended
• Maximum airbrake
• Normal operating
• The green arc signifies the normal operating
  range for the aircraft. The bottom of the green
  arc is Vs (stalling speed in the clean
  configuration). The top of the green arc is Vno
  (maximum structural cruising speed).

50
2. The airspeed indicator's white arc signifies
the _____ speed range.

• Landing gear retraction
• Flap operating
• Turbulence penetration
• Normal operating

51
2. The airspeed indicator's white arc signifies
the _____ speed range.

• Landing gear retraction
• Flap operating
• Turbulence penetration
• Normal operating
• The white arc is the flap operating speed range.
  The top of the arc denotes Vfe, (maximum flaps
  extended speed), and the bottom of the arc
  denotes Vso, (stalling speed in the landing
  configuration). Note that some aircraft have
  additional flap speeds. For example, approach
  flaps on some aircraft can be deployed above the
  white arc. It's the responsibility of the pilot
  to know these limitations and not to rely
  exclusively on the airspeed indicator markings.

52
3. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator
signifies the _____ speed range.

• Normal operating
• Flap-deployed
• Caution
• Low-speed handling range

53
3. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator
signifies the _____ speed range.

• Normal operating
• Flap-deployed
• Caution
• Low-speed handling range
• The yellow arc of the airspeed indicator denotes
  the caution range for the aircraft. Only operate
  at speeds in this range when you're in smooth
  air. The top of the yellow arc signifies Vne
  (never-exceed speed) and the bottom, Vno (maximum
  structural cruising speed).

54
4. Which airspeed indicator marking denotes Vne?

• Red radial line
• Blue radial line
• Top of the green arc
• Bottom of the white arc

55
4. Which airspeed indicator marking denotes Vne?

• Red radial line
• Blue radial line
• Top of the green arc
• Bottom of the white arc
• Vne, (never-exceed speed), is denoted by the red
  radial line at the top of the caution range of
  the airspeed indicator or airspeed tape. It is
  the speed beyond which structural damage can
  result from the aerodynamic forces involved

56
5. Which V-speed should you fly to achieve the
best angle of climb?

• Va
• Vx
• Vy
• Vfe

57
5. Which V-speed should you fly to achieve the
best angle of climb?

• Va
• Vx
• Vy
• Vfe
• Best angle of climb is known as Vx. This is the
  speed that will provide the most altitude in the
  shortest horizontal distance. Vx is typically
  used in short-field operations when it's
  imperative to gain altitude prior to reaching
  some point, such as an obstacle. Vy, on the other
  hand, is the best rate of climb speed it's used
  to get the most efficient gain in altitude over a
  given period of time.

58
6. What is the definition of Vs?

• Stalling speed
• Single-engine climb speed
• Landing configuration stall speed
• Subsonic safety speed

59
6. What is the definition of Vs?

• Stalling speed
• Single-engine climb speed
• Landing configuration stall speed
• Subsonic safety speed
• Vs, located at the bottom of the green arc, is
  the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
  speed at which the airplane is controllable
  (generally in the "clean" configuration).

60
7. What is Vso?

• Single-engine operating speed
• Stalling speed, landing configuration
• Stalling speed, clean configuration
• Stalling speed, one engine inoperative

61
7. What is Vso?

• Single-engine operating speed
• Stalling speed, landing configuration
• Stalling speed, clean configuration
• Stalling speed, one engine inoperative
• Vso, located at the bottom of the white arc, is
  the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
  Normally, this means having landing gear
  deployed, full flaps, and a power setting
  appropriate for landing.

62
8. Which of the following does not appear on the
airspeed indicator?

• Maneuvering speed
• Stalling speed, landing configuration
• Best rate of climb speed
• Never-exceed speed
• Both A and C

63
8. Which of the following does not appear on the
airspeed indicator?

• Maneuvering speed
• Stalling speed, landing configuration
• Best rate of climb speed
• Never-exceed speed
• Both A and C
• Maneuvering speed and best rate of climb speed
  (Vy) do not appear on the airspeed indicator. Va
  (maneuvering speed) varies with an aircraft's
  weight, making it difficult to mark a particular
  spot on an airspeed indicator. Vy (best rate of
  climb speed) isn't specifically marked on the
  airspeed indicator because the actual speed
  changes somewhat with ambient conditions.

64
9. What procedure should you follow if you
realize your airspeed is above Vne?

• Decrease power, reduce bank, and seek a level
  pitch
• Pitch up to decrease airspeed
• Deploy flaps to increase drag

65
9. What procedure should you follow if you
realize your airspeed is above Vne?

• Decrease power, reduce bank, and seek a level
  pitch
• Pitch up to decrease airspeed
• Deploy flaps to increase drag
• Above Vne, there are no guarantees that the
  airframe will not become overstressed and incur
  structural damage. Should the aircraft ever
  exceed Vne, every effort should be made to slow
  the aircraft down by reducing power and using
  very gentle control inputs to avoid damage to the
  airframe.

66
10. An airplane will always stall at the bottom
of the white arc.

• True
• False

67
10. An airplane will always stall at the bottom
of the white arc.

• True
• False
• A variety of factors influence stall speeds,
  including ambient conditions, aircraft CG, pilot
  technique, and other factors. Although the bottom
  of the white arc (Vso), is the airspeed at which
  the aircraft stalled when it was tested for
  certification, many factors can cause that speed
  to vary by several knots.

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End of quiz
69
Emergency Procedures
70
1. What should your first priority be in an
emergency?

• Declare an emergency to ATC
• Squawk 7700
• Activate the ELT
• Fly the aircraft

71
1. What should your first priority be in an
emergency?

• Declare an emergency to ATC
• Squawk 7700
• Activate the ELT
• Fly the aircraft
• The first order of business in an emergency is to
  fly the aircraft. Remembering to "aviate,
  navigate, and communicate," in that order, will
  help keep a pilot from creating more trouble for
  him/herself during an emergency situation.

72
2. What transponder code should be squawked in an
emergency?

• 7500
• 7600
• 7700
• None of the above

73
2. What transponder code should be squawked in an
emergency?

• 7500
• 7600
• 7700
• None of the above
• The standard emergency transponder code is 7700.
  Code 7600 is used by aircraft experiencing a
  communication failure, and 7500 is used to signal
  to ATC that an aircraft has been hijacked.

74
3. What is/are potential source(s) of help during
an emergency?

• Checklists
• Autopilot (if installed)
• Air Traffic Control
• Other pilots
• All of the above

75
3. What is/are potential source(s) of help during
an emergency?

• Checklists
• Autopilot (if installed)
• Air Traffic Control
• Other pilots
• All of the above
• All of the above - This is the correct answer.
  All of these sources can all be helpful in an
  emergency. Checklists ensure the pilot doesn't
  miss important items, autopilots can hold the
  airplane steady while troubleshooting an
  equipment failure, ATC can offer priority vectors
  to the nearest airport, and other pilots can
  circle an aircraft, relay communications, and
  guide search and rescue to the site after a
  forced landing.

76
4. If you encounter severe or extreme turbulence,
you should reduce airspeed to at or below ____.

• Vno
• Va
• Vy
• Vs

77
4. If you encounter severe or extreme turbulence,
you should reduce airspeed to at or below ____.

• Vno
• Va
• Vy
• Vs
• Va - This is the correct answer. Penetrating
  turbulence at or below Va (design maneuvering
  speed) helps assure that a gust or sudden upset
  of the aircraft will force it to stall before
  exceeding design load limits, reducing the
  possibility of over-stressing the airframe in
  rough conditions.

78
5. After a forced landing in a remote area, you
should venture off and seek help.

• True
• False

79
5. After a forced landing in a remote area, you
should venture off and seek help.

• True
• False
• False -Staying close to the aircraft has several
  benefits. First, if the ELT is functioning
  properly, its signal will eventually guide search
  and rescue to its location. Also, the aircraft is
  much larger than a person, providing a more
  easily identified visual target for search and
  rescue personnel. Finally, the aircraft itself
  can provide shelter from the elements, provided
  it is not in an unsafe condition following a
  forced landing.

80
6. In the event of an engine failure (assume a
single-engine airplane) during the takeoff climb,
the best course of action is to make a 180-degree
turn back to the runway.

• True
• False

81
6. In the event of an engine failure (assume a
single-engine airplane) during the takeoff climb,
the best course of action is to make a 180-degree
turn back to the runway.

• True
• False
• False -Two factors conspire against a pilot
  attempting a power-off 180-degree turn back to
  the runway time and descent rate. If an engine
  fails below pattern altitude (1,000 feet agl),
  there is insufficient time to make the turn back
  to the runway. First, it takes an average pilot
  5-6 seconds to react to a total engine failure.
  Then, it takes approximately 75 seconds in a
  standard-rate turn to complete a 225-degree turn
  back to the runway environment (180 degrees to
  the reciprocal heading, plus 45 degrees to point
  the nose at the center of the field). If at 1,000
  feet agl, the pilot will have a 15-second deficit
  to complete the turn, and a much greater deficit
  if attempting such a turn below pattern altitude.
  Additionally, turns rob an aircraft of energy and
  increase its descent rate. During a low-altitude
  engine failure, it is imperative to land as close
  to straight ahead as possible and not risk the
  stall/spin scenario frequently associated with a
  power-off turn back to the runway.

82
7. If you encounter smoke or fire in the cockpit,
you should immediately ____.

• Turn off as many electronic components as
  possible Frequently, fire or smoke in the
  cockpit is caused by an electrical problem.
• Open the windows to vent the cabin
• Declare an emergency to ATC
• Descend at Vne to land as soon as possible

83
7. If you encounter smoke or fire in the cockpit,
you should immediately ____.

• Turn off as many electronic components as
  possible Frequently, fire or smoke in the
  cockpit is caused by an electrical problem.
• Open the windows to vent the cabin
• Declare an emergency to ATC
• Descend at Vne to land as soon as possible
• Turning off as many electronic components as
  possible can de-energize a short, allowing the
  affected component to cool and reducing the
  chance of the fire continuing. If you must keep
  some of your avionics on (as when flying in IMC
  or at night), carefully monitor the situation and
  be ready to turn off additional components if the
  smoke or fire continues.

84
8. What can you do to mitigate the risks
associated with a vacuum failure?

• Practice partial-panel operations
• Install a backup vacuum system
• Adhere to the manufacturer's maintenance
  guidelines Install backup flight instruments
• All of the above

85
8. What can you do to mitigate the risks
associated with a vacuum failure?

• Practice partial-panel operations
• Install a backup vacuum system
• Adhere to the manufacturer's maintenance
  guidelines Install backup flight instruments
• All of the above
• All of these options can help mitigate the risks
  associated with a vacuum failure, especially in
  IMC. A vacuum failure is a critical emergency
  when flying "in the soup," and the large majority
  of these malfunctions result in fatal crashes.
  Pilots can increase their chances by practicing
  partial-panel operations, adhering to vacuum pump
  maintenance and replacement guidelines, and
  installing backup flight instruments. A few
  thousand dollars spent on a backup vacuum system
  or backup electric attitude indicator is a small
  price to pay for the redundancy and safety these
  items can provide.

86
9. When flying a VFR cross-country, how can you
increase your chances of being found in the event
of an off-airport landing?

• File a flight plan
• Leave your cell phone number with family and
  friends
• Install a 406 MHz ELT in your aircraft
• All of the above

87
9. When flying a VFR cross-country, how can you
increase your chances of being found in the event
of an off-airport landing?

• File a flight plan
• Leave your cell phone number with family and
  friends
• Install a 406 MHz ELT in your aircraft
• All of the above
• All of these can help. Filing a flight plan is
  the first step to increasing your chances of
  being found by search and rescue. Filing one
  takes just a few minutes, and it can be opened
  and closed quickly and easily with Flight
  Service. Installing a 406 MHz ELT also increases
  your chances. These advanced ELTs are more
  reliable and powerful than the 121.5/243.0 MHz
  ELTs currently installed in most GA aircraft.
  While more expensive than older-generation ELTs,
  406 MHz units should be carefully considered by
  pilots who fly over uninhabited or rugged areas
  regularly. Finally, leaving your cell phone
  number with family and friends allows them to
  contact you in the event you don't arrive at your
  destination on time or forget to close your
  flight plan after landing.

88
10. What is your best option if an aircraft door
opens at rotation?

• Reach across and try to latch it
• Immediately reduce power to idle and apply
  maximum braking
• Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and
  land, and then address the problem on the ground

89
10. What is your best option if an aircraft door
opens at rotation?

• Reach across and try to latch it
• Immediately reduce power to idle and apply
  maximum braking
• Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and
  land, and then address the problem on the ground
• Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and
  land, and then address the problem on the ground
  -For most aircraft, making a trip in the pattern,
  landing, and then addressing the door problem is
  your best bet. Reaching across the cockpit to
  close a door during takeoff is a bad idea that
  can lead to a loss of control of the aircraft.
  Aborted takeoffs can be hazardous on short
  runways, and heavy braking can blow a tire and
  cause further problems.

90
End of quiz
91
Thunderstorms
92
1. As long as a lifting action is present, a
thunderstorm can form in dry or moist air.

• True
• False

93
1. As long as a lifting action is present, a
thunderstorm can form in dry or moist air.

• True
• False
• False- Three components are necessary for a
  thunderstorm to form sufficient moisture,
  unstable air, and a lifting action. Without any
  one of these conditions, a thunderstorm will not
  develop.

94
2. The three stages of a thunderstorm are _____.

• Single-cell, multicell, and super- cell
• Stratus, cumulonimbus, and anvil
• Cumulus, mature, and dissipating

95
2. The three stages of a thunderstorm are _____.

• Single-cell, multicell, and super- cell
• Stratus, cumulonimbus, and anvil
• Cumulus, mature, and dissipating
• Cumulus, mature, and dissipating -This is the
  correct answer. Intense vertical development
  builds the original cloud during the first, or
  cumulus, stage. The mature stage begins when
  precipitation falls from the cloud. Thunder and
  lightning will also occur. The cloud eventually
  becomes so saturated with moisture that it is no
  longer able to support its own weight. Eventually
  the cloud will reach an altitude at which
  vertical development will cease. At this point,
  strong upper-level winds will spread the top of
  the cloud horizontally, creating an anvil shape.
  This distinctive shape is an indication of the
  final, or dissipating, stage.

96
3. Lightning always occurs with a thunderstorm.

• True
• False

97
3. Lightning always occurs with a thunderstorm.

• True
• False
• Lightning will always occur during a
  thunderstorm. The intense air circulation inside
  a thunderstorm causes an excessive amount of
  negative charge that is released in the form of
  lightning. The extreme heat generated by
  lightning causes the air to rapidly expand, which
  we hear as thunder. Pilots should also expect
  severe turbulence, strong wind gusts, icing,
  hail, and wind shear, which are also commonly
  associated with thunderstorms.

98
4. If hail is present in a thunderstorm, you can
rely on the nearest automated weather station to
report it.

• True
• False

99
4. If hail is present in a thunderstorm, you can
rely on the nearest automated weather station to
report it.

• True
• False
• False- Significantly warmer temperatures at
  lower altitudes can melt hail before it reaches
  the ground, preventing automated weather systems
  from detecting hail at higher altitudes. Hail
  forms when super cooled water droplets inside a
  thunderstorm are drawn upward by the strong
  updrafts, freeze, and then collect more water
  particles in downdrafts before being forced
  upward again. This process, called accretion,
  will continue until the hail becomes heavy enough
  to fall out of the cloud.

100
5. Embedded thunderstorms are uniquely hazardous
because they are _____.

• Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily
  seen
• Often strong, severe and move quickly
• A cluster of thunderstorms in various stages

101
5. Embedded thunderstorms are uniquely hazardous
because they are _____.

• Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily
  seen
• Often strong, severe and move quickly
• A cluster of thunderstorms in various stages
• A - Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily
  seen - Embedded thunderstorms are not necessarily
  more hazardous than any other type. However, they
  are more difficult to detect because they are
  hidden among other clouds. This makes it more
  common for pilots to inadvertently fly into these
  storms, especially during instrument
  meteorological conditions (IMC). Strong, severe
  and quick moving storms are typically in a squall
  line. A cluster of thunderstorms in various
  stages of development are collectively referred
  to as a multi cell thunderstorm.

102
6. If flying in the vicinity of a weakening
thunderstorm, a pilot should be most concerned
about _____.

• Heavy rain showers
• Strong downdrafts
• Frequent ground lightning

103
6. If flying in the vicinity of a weakening
thunderstorm, a pilot should be most concerned
about _____.

• Heavy rain showers
• Strong downdrafts
• Frequent ground lightning
• Strong downdrafts - Hazardous wind conditions may
  exist within several miles of a dissipating
  thunderstorm. As the cloud collapses, the
  thunderstorm weakens, producing strong
  downdrafts, gusty winds, low-level wind shear,
  and micro bursts. AIM 7-1-30 encourages pilots to
  avoid thunderstorms by at least 20 miles.

104
7. Thunderstorms produce wind shear along _____
of a thunderstorm.

• The upwind side
• The downwind side
• All sides

105
7. Thunderstorms produce wind shear along _____
of a thunderstorm.

• The upwind side
• The downwind side
• All sides
• All sides - This is the correct answer. Wind
  shear can be found on all sides of a
  thunderstorm. This "shear zone" occurs when the
  cool air from strong downdrafts expands and
  collides with the surrounding air outside of the
  cloud, causing gusty winds and severe turbulence.
  
• Pilots who experience weather associated with
  thunderstorms are encouraged to submit a pilot
  report (pirep) when able to provide other pilots
  with information about the actual conditions
  aloft. If the details of submitting a pirep seem
  like a distant memory, take ASF's interactive
  online course SkySpotter Pireps Made Easy to see
  how quick and easy it really is to get, use, and
  give pireps.

106
8. Bright lightning is the best way to identify a
thunderstorm at night.

• True
• False

107
8. Bright lightning is the best way to identify a
thunderstorm at night.

• True
• False
• False is the correct answer. Although a
  thunderstorm always produces lightning, it is
  sometimes more difficult to recognize a
  thunderstorm at night or during IMC, especially
  if it's embedded. The frequency of lightning
  flashes depends on the stage and strength of a
  thunderstorm. Even if a pilot cannot see
  lightning, the storm may produce severe
  turbulence and hail that could lead to structural
  damage.
• Getting a thorough weather briefing before
  takeoff is the first step in avoiding
  thunderstorms. During flight, contact En Route
  Flight Advisory Service (EFAS), commonly known as
  Flight Watch, on 122.0 to obtain weather
  advisories specific to your route.

108
9. If you accidentally fly into a thunderstorm,
what should you do?

• Maintain altitude and increase airspeed to get
  through the thunderstorm more quickly.
• Immediately execute a 20-degree bank, decrease
  airspeed and reverse course to exit the
  thunderstorm.
• Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
  a cruise airspeed below maneuvering speed (VA).

109
9. If you accidentally fly into a thunderstorm,
what should you do?

• Maintain altitude and increase airspeed to get
  through the thunderstorm more quickly.
• Immediately execute a 20-degree bank, decrease
  airspeed and reverse course to exit the
  thunderstorm.
• Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
  a cruise airspeed below maneuvering speed (VA).
• Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
  a cruise airspeed below maneuvering speed (VA) is
  the correct answer. If you encounter a
  thunderstorm in flight, it is important to be
  more concerned about attitude than altitude.
  Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain
  a cruise speed below maneuvering speed (VA) to
  avoid structural damage to the aircraft.
  Remember VA varies with weight and therefore is
  found in your POH, not on your airspeed
  indicator. If able, also contact ATC to advise
  them of the situation they may be able to
  provide further assistance.
• Choosing to reverse your course to exit the storm
  is not advised. By keeping the wings level and
  "riding" the up and downdrafts, you will reduce
  the risk of making abrupt control inputs that
  could lead to a stall, unusual attitude, or
  damage to the aircraft.

110
10. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
_____.

• Pilots with hazardous weather advisories
• Separation between VFR aircraft
• Separation between IFR aircraft

111
10. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
_____.

• Pilots with hazardous weather advisories
• Separation between VFR aircraft
• Separation between IFR aircraft
• Separation between IFR aircraft is the correct
  answer. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
  separation for aircraft operating on IFR flight
  plans. A variety of radar services are also
  provided to VFR traffic, including traffic
  advisories, but only on a workload permitting
  basis. Although ATC may offer weather advisories,
  it's not their main responsibility.
• Check out ASF's WeatherWise Thunderstorms and
  ATC online course to learn how ATC describes
  precipitation, what weather-radar services
  controllers can offer to pilots in flight, and
  how to effectively communicate with ATC during
  flights near convective activity. Remember,
  Flight Watch (122.0) is a great source of weather
  advisories while enroute. .

112
End of quiz
113
Operations at Towered Airports
114
1. On a sectional chart, towered airports are
depicted in _____.

• Magenta
• Blue
• Black

115
1. On a sectional chart, towered airports are
depicted in _____.

• Magenta
• Blue
• Black
• On sectional charts, airports with a control
  tower are depicted in blue. Magenta depicts non
  towered airports. Black icons are used to depict
  visual landmarks, not airports.

116
2. At a towered airport you receive instructions
to "Taxi to Runway 35L" (the active runway). The
most direct route would cause you to cross Runway
26. May you cross Runway 26 (the intersecting
runway)?

• Yes
• No

117
2. At a towered airport you receive instructions
to "Taxi to Runway 35L" (the active runway). The
most direct route would cause you to cross Runway
26. May you cross Runway 26 (the intersecting
runway)?

• Yes
• No
• When you are instructed to "taxi to" a runway and
  no instructions are given to hold short of any
  other runways, AIM 4-3-18 states that all runways
  intersecting the taxi route may be crossed.
  However, if you have any doubt about whether you
  have permission to cross a runway, do not
  hesitate to ask ATC. Pilots are not permitted to
  cross, or taxi onto, the runway they were cleared
  to (i.e., in this example a pilot could not taxi
  onto Runway 35L) without further instructions.

118
3. When trying to avoid wake turbulence, the
safest bet is to avoid the area _____ larger
aircraft.

• Below and behind
• Above and behind
• At the same altitude as

119
3. When trying to avoid wake turbulence, the
safest bet is to avoid the area _____ larger
aircraft.

• Below and behind
• Above and behind
• At the same altitude as
• Because wake turbulence tends to sink, you want
  to avoid the area below and behind larger
  aircraft. When landing behind a larger plane, fly
  above its approach path and land past its
  touchdown point. When taking off behind a larger
  aircraft, take off before its rotation point and
  climb out above its flight path (if possible).
• ATC can - and will - provide runway separation on
  takeoff by delaying the takeoff of small aircraft
  when departing behind heavy (maximum takeoff
  weight of more than 255,000 pounds), large
  (maximum takeoff weight between 41,000 pounds and
  255,000 pounds), and Boeing 757 aircraft. In some
  cases, the pilot of the small aircraft can waive
  this delay however, the ASF suggests that you
  play it safe and wait for the required interval.
  
• AIM Chapter 7, Section 3 contains more
  information regarding wake turbulence.

120
4. When told to "maintain runway heading" after
takeoff, you're expected to _____.

• Track the extended centerline of the takeoff
  runway
• Maintain runway heading, regardless of drift

121
4. When told to "maintain runway heading" after
takeoff, you're expected to _____.

• Track the extended centerline of the takeoff
  runway
• Maintain runway heading, regardless of drift
• When cleared to "fly (or maintain) runway
  heading," pilots are expected to maintain the
  runway heading, regardless of the amount of wind
  drift encountered. Since every aircraft is
  experiencing the same amount of wind, ATC can
  predict the ground tracks when everyone is
  holding the same heading as opposed to pilots
  applying varying degrees of wind correction to
  track a centerline they can no longer see. To be
  technically correct, maintain the actual magnetic
  heading of the runway, not the painted runway
  number (e.g., if Runway 4's actual magnetic
  heading is 044, make an effort to maintain 044 as
  opposed to 040).

122
5. When you're approaching the airport to land,
tower states that you are "cleared for the
option." What does this clearance allow you to
do?

• Choose the runway best suited for landing from
  your current position
• Perform a stop-and-go, touch-and-go, or full-stop
  landing
• Perform a low approach or missed approach
• All of the above (A, B, and C)
• B and C only

123
5. When you're approaching the airport to land,
tower states that you are "cleared for the
option." What does this clearance allow you to
do?

• Choose the runway best suited for landing from
  your current position
• Perform a stop-and-go, touch-and-go, or full-stop
  landing
• Perform a low approach or missed approach
• All of the above (A, B, and C)
• B and C only
• The Pilot/Controller Glossary defines "Cleared
  for the option" as "ATC authorization for an
  aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach,
  missed approach, stop-and go, or full-stop
  landing at the discretion of the pilot." Also
  known as an option approach, this clearance
  allows instructors to evaluate a student's
  performance under changing situations. If this
  clearance is desired, a request should be made
  when entering downwind for a VFR traffic pattern,
  or when passing the final approach fix inbound on
  an instrument approach. More information can be
  found in AIM 4-3-22

124
6. After accepting a land and hold short (LAHSO)
clearance, you should _____.

• Remain on the runway after landing, holding at
  the designated hold-short point
• Exit the runway via the first convenient taxiway
  prior to reaching the hold short point
• Cross the designated hold short point only after
  visually clearing the area

125
6. After accepting a land and hold short (LAHSO)
clearance, you should _____.

• Remain on the runway after landing, holding at
  the designated hold-short point
• Exit the runway via the first convenient taxiway
  prior to reaching the hold short point
• Cross the designated hold short point only after
  visually clearing the area
• According to AIM 4-3-11, pilots who accept a
  LAHSO clearance should land and exit the runway
  via the first convenient taxiway prior to
  reaching the hold short point. If there are no
  convenient turnoffs, then simply stop prior to
  reaching the hold short point to avoid a traffic
  conflict. The pilot-in- command has the final
  authority to accept or decline any LAHSO
  clearance in fact, pilots are expected to
  decline a LAHSO clearance if accepting the
  clearance will compromise safety. When accepting
  a LAHSO clearance, full read back of your
  clearance is required (i.e., "Piper Three-
  Five-Seven-Three Mike, cleared to land runway
  one-zero, hold short of runway two-three"). If
  you decide to decline a LAHSO clearance, you
  should notify ATC immediately by stating
  "unable." Student pilots may not accept a LAHSO
  clearance, and LAHSO operations will only be
  conducted with a minimum of basic VFR weather
  conditions.
• The Air Safety Foundation recommends that you
  keep the landing distances you calculated during
  preflight handy so that if offered a LAHSO
  clearance, you'll know whether or not you can
  land safely.

126
7. When a part-time air traffic control tower is
closed, you should _____.

• Contact the appropriate Air Route Traffic Control
  Center (ARTCC) in order to obtain a clearance to
  land
• Self-Announce your intentions on the unicom
  frequency for that airport
• Self-Announce your intentions on the common
  traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
• Treat the airport as a closed facility and find
  an alternate place to land

127
7. When a part-time air traffic control tower is
closed, you should _____.

• Contact the appropriate Air Route Traffic Control
  Center (ARTCC) in order to obtain a clearance to
  land
• Self-Announce your intentions on the unicom
  frequency for that airport
• Self-Announce your intentions on the common
  traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
• Treat the airport as a closed facility and find
  an alternate place to land
• When the control tower is not in operation, you
  should communicate your intentions by
  self-announcing on the common traffic advisory
  frequency (CTAF). The CTAF will commonly be the
  tower frequency, but verify by looking in the
  A/FD or on the sectional chart. Even though there
  is a control tower on the field, the airport
  operates as a non towered airport when the tower
  is closed. On sectional charts, part-time towers
  are marked with a star symbol next to the control
  tower frequency, with the times of tower
  operation listed in the control tower frequencies
  table found on the front flap of the chart (and
  in the A/FD).

128
8. For traffic management purposes, which of the
following techniques may air traffic controllers
request you to perform?

• Fly a faster (or slower) final approach speed
• Extend the downwind leg until ATC approves a turn
  to base leg
• Switch to another runway
• Perform a 360-degree turn to allow preceding
  traffic to clear
• All of the above
• In order to keep the flow of traffic as smooth as
  possible, controllers may issue a variety of
  instructions, some of which are not as common as
  others. These include fly a faster or slower
  approach speed, extend the downwind leg, switch
  to another runway, perform a 360-degree turn,
  make S-turns on final, and any other maneuver
  they may deem appropriate for the circumstances.
  If ATC asks you to fly a slower approach speed,
  don't fly too close to your aircraft's stall
  speed. It's much better to tell ATC "unable" than
  to stall on final.
• Unless immediate action is required to avoid a
  collision, do not perform any of these maneuvers
  without telling ATC. Their management of traffic
  flow is based on what they're expecting you to
  do, and performing an unexpected maneuver could
  put you at odds with another aircraft.

129
9. Except in the case of an emergency, you must
receive an ATC clearance to land at a towered
airport when the tower is in operation.

• True
• False
• In order to land at a towered airport, you must
  first receive a clearance from ATC, as required
  by FAR 91.129(i). When cleared to land, you must
  land on the runway specified by ATC. If you've
  been cleared for just a low approach or missed
  approach, you may not touch down on the runway.
• Remember As pilot in command, you have the final
  authority to accept or reject an ATC clearance.
  If you are not comfortable landing on the
  assigned runway, or want to use another runway
  for training purposes, ask for another runway.

130
10. When unsure about your current location or
taxi route, you can get help from ATC by
requesting _____.

• Progressive taxi instructions
• Proprietary taxi instructions
• Sequential taxi instructions
• An airport diagram

131
10. When unsure about your current location or
taxi route, you can get help from ATC by
requesting _____.

• Progressive taxi instructions
• Proprietary taxi instructions
• Sequential taxi instructions
• An airport diagram
• If you are unfamiliar with the airport, or if for
  any reason confusion exists as to the correct
  taxi routing, ask ATC for progressive taxi
  instructions, which include step-by-step
  directions as you taxi for takeoff or to the ramp
  for parking. Progressive instructions may also be
  issued if the controller deems it necessary due
  to traffic or field conditions, such as
  construction or closed taxiways. If at any time
  you become disoriented at a towered airport, stop
  and ask ATC for assistance (even if you can't
  remember the exact term "progressive taxi").
• Pilots should have an airport diagram ready
  before they start taxiing. If you don't have a
  fancy multi-function display (MFD) that follows
  your every turn, you can download and print free
  ASF airport diagrams.

132
End of quiz
133
Airport Lighting VFR
134
1. Taxiway edge lights are ____ in color.

• Blue
• Green
• White
• Red

135
1. Taxiway edge lights are ____ in color.

• Blue
• Green
• White
• Red
• Taxiway edge lights are blue in color. They are
  used to outline the edges of taxiways at night or
  in reduced visibility conditions. Taxiway
  centerline lights are green in color, while
  runway edge lights are white.

136
2. While taxiing for takeoff at night you see two
pairs of flashing yellow lights on each side of
the taxiway. These are ____ lights.

• Clearance Bar
• Runway Guard
• Stop Bar

137
2. While taxiing for takeoff at night you see two
pairs of flashing yellow lights on each side of
the taxiway. These are ____ lights.

• Clearance Bar
• Runway Guard
• Stop Bar
• Runway guard lights are found only at
  runway/taxiway intersections, and consist of
  either elevated flashing lights on both sides of
  the taxiway, or of a row of flashing yellow
  in-pavement lights. Some pilots refer to these as
  "wig-wag" lights. Clearance bar lights, which are
  steady-burning, yellow, in-pavement lights, are
  used on taxiway holding positions to make those
  positions more visible. Stop bar lights are a row
  of red, unidirectional, steady-burning
  in-pavement lights installed across the entire
  taxiway at the runway holding position. Following
  an ATC clearance to proceed, ATC turns the stop
  bar lights off and the taxiway centerline lead-on
  lights are then turned on.

138
3. Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are
listed on sectional charts.

• True
• False

139
3. Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are
listed on sectional charts.

• True
• False
• Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are not
  listed on sectional charts. While the CTAF is
  commonly used for pilot-controlled lighting, this
  is not always the case. The proper frequency is
  provided in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)
  and on standard instrument approach procedure
  charts.

140
4. When using pilot-controlled lighting, keying
the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds activates
____ intensity lighting.

• Low
• Medium
• High

141
4. When using pilot-controlled lighting, keying
the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds activates
____ intensity lighting.

• Low
• Medium
• High
• According to AIM section 2-1-7, keying the mic 7
  times in 5 seconds activates the high-intensity
  setting. Regardless of the intensity level the
  pilot desires, pilot-controlled lighting systems
  require the number of desired keys (3, 5, or 7)
  to be completed within 5 seconds.

142
5. The glide path provided by a Visual Approach
Slope Indicator (VASI), assures obstacle
clearance on a 6-mile final.

• True
• False

143
5. The glide path provided by a Visual Approach
Slope Indicator (VASI), assures obstacle
clearance on a 6-mile final.

• True
• False
• The visual glide path provided by the VASI will
  provide safe obstacle clearance within /- 10
  degrees of the extended runway centerline
  (laterally) and out to 4 nautical miles from the
  runway threshold. VASI visual glide paths are
  normally set at 3 degrees. While this is the
  typical glide path, some locations may need to be
  as high as 4.5 degrees to ensure obstacle
  clearance.

144
6. When using a 3-bar Visual Approach Slope
Indicator (VASI), you see two red bars above one
white bar, you are _____.

• On the lower glide path
• On the upper glide path
• Above both glide paths

145
6. When using a 3-bar Visual Approach Slope
Indicator (VASI), you see two red bars above one
white bar, you are _____.

• On the lower glide path
• On the upper glide path
• Above both glide paths
• Two red bars above one white bar indicate that
  you are on the lower glide path. Three-bar VASI
  systems provide two visual glide paths, an upper
  and a lower. The upper glide path is provided by
  the middle and far bar, while the near and middle
  bar are for the lower glide path. The higher
  glide path is intended for use by high-cockpit
  aircraft to provide sufficient threshold crossing
  height. Most general aviation pilots should use
  the 3-degree lower glide path.

146
7. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
lights are typically visible about 5 miles from
the airport during