Grade 11

1
Grade 11 Objective 5
2
1 During an investigation, students
accelerated boxes using different forces and
then determined the masses of the boxes. What is
the mass in grams of a box that requires 0.1
newton to make it accelerate 2 m/s2? A 50
g B 20 g C 0.05 g D 0.02 g
3
Students conducting an investigation on forces
pushed a box across a smooth floor using
different amounts of force. The students
collected the following data
2 Which of the following calculated values would
be the same for all 4 trials? A
Acceleration B Power C Speed D Work
Trials Mass of box (kg) Distance Box is Moved (m) Time (s)
1 15 kg 5 m 30 s
2 15 kg 5 m 25 s
3 15 kg 5 m 15 s
4 15 kg 5 m 5 s
4
3 A ball moving at 30 m/s has a momentum of
15 kgm/s. The mass of the ball is A 45
kg B 15 kg C 2.0 kg D 0.5 kg
5
4 How much work is performed when a 50
kg crate is pushed 15 m with a force of 20
N? F 300 J G 750 J H 1,000 J J
15,000 J
6
5 If a force of 100 newtons was exerted on
an object and no work was done, the object must
have A accelerated rapidly B remained
motionless C decreased its velocity D
gained momentum
7
6 The weight lifter used a force of
980 N to raise the barbell over her head in 5.21
seconds. Approximately how much work did she do
in raising the barbell? F 380 J G 982
J H 2,000 J J 10,000 J
8
7 A mechanic used a hydraulic lift to raise
a 12,054 N car 1.89 m above the floor of a
garage. It took 4.75 s to raise the car.
What was the power output of the lift? A
489 W B 1815 W C 4796 W D 30,294 W
9
Acceleration of an Electrically Powered
Bicycle 8 According to this graph,
what was the bicycles acceleration between 6
and 10 seconds? A 0.0 m/s 2 B 0.65 m/s
2 C 1.6 m/s 2 D 6.5 m/s 2
10
9 An advertisement claims that a certain truck
has the most powerful engine in its class. If
the engine has more power, which of the
following can the trucks engine do, compared
to every other engine in its class? F
Produce fewer emissions G Operate more
efficiently H Perform work faster J
Accelerate longer
11
10 What is the net force exerted on a 90.0 kg
race-car driver while the race car is
accelerating from 0 to 44.7 m/s in 4.50 s? F
9.8 N G 20 N H 201 N J 894 N
12
11 Starting from rest at the center of a
skating rink, two skaters push off from each
other over a time period of 1.2 s. What is the
force of the push by the smaller skater? F
16 N G 32 N H 88 N J 100 N
13
12 A horizontal force of 600 N is used to push
a box 8 m across a room. Which of these
variables must be known to determine the power
used in moving the box? A The weight of the
box B The potential energy of the box C The
time it takes to move the box D The length of
the box
14
13 The speed of sound in human tissue is about
1600 m/s. If an ultrasound pulse takes 1.5 10
5 s to travel through a tissue, what is the
thickness of the tissue? F 2.4 km G 2.4
m H 24 cm J 24 mm
15
14 A 0.500 kg ball with a speed of 4.0 m/s
strikes a stationary 1.0 kg target. If momentum
is conserved, what is the total momentum of
the ball and target after the collision? A
0.0 kgm/s B 0.5 kgm/s C 1.0 kgm/s D 2.0
kgm/s
16
15 The table contains data for two
wrecking balls being used to demolish a
building. What is the difference in momentum
between the two wrecking balls? F 300
kgm/s G 200 kgm/s H 150 kgm/s J 0 kgm/s
Mass (kg) Velocity (m/s)
100 3
150 2
17
16 A woman lifts a 57-newton weight a distance
of 40 centimeters each time she does a
particular exercise. It takes her 0.60 second to
lift the weight. How much power does she supply
for lifting the weight one time? F 24 W G
34 W H 38 W J 95 W
18
17 The 500 g cart is moving in a
straight line at a constant speed of 2 m/s.
Which of the following must the 250 g toy car
have in order to maintain the same momentum as
the cart? F An acceleration of 5 m/s2 for 2
seconds G A potential energy of 20 J H A
constant velocity of 4 m/s J An applied force
of 5 N for 5 seconds
19
18 The table above shows experimental
data collected when four cars moved along a
straight-line path. According to these data,
which car moved with a constant acceleration of
2 m/s2? A Car Q B Car R C Car S D
Car T
Velocity (m/s) Velocity (m/s) Velocity (m/s) Velocity (m/s)
Time (s) Car Q Car R Car S Car T
1 1 2 2 0
2 2 0 4 1
3 1 2 6 2
4 2 0 8 4
5 1 2 10 8
20
19 A cyclist moves at a constant speed of 5
m/s. If the cyclist does not accelerate during
the next 20 seconds, he will travel A 0
m B 4 m C 50 m D 100 m
21
20 A 1-kilogram ball has a kinetic energy of 50
joules. The velocity of the ball is F 5
m/s G 10 m/s H 25 m/s J 50 m/s
22
21 The space shuttle orbits Earth at
approximately 8000 m/s. The shuttle stays in
orbit because the A shuttles action is
balanced by Earths equal and opposite
reaction B combination of gravity and the
shuttles inertia creates a curved path
parallel to Earths surface C net
gravitational force is zero at the shuttles
distance from Earths center D force
of Earths gravity pulls the shuttle downward and
the force of the moons gravity pulls the
shuttle upward
23
22 The frog leaps from its resting
position at the lakes bank onto a lily pad. If
the frog has a mass of 0.5 kg and the
acceleration of the leap is 3 m/s2, what is the
force the frog exerts on the lakes bank when
leaping? A 0.2 N B 0.8 N C 1.5 N D
6.0 N
24
23 Which of these is the best description
of the action-reaction force pair when the space
shuttle lifts off from the launch pad? A The
ground pushes the rocket up while exhaust gases
push down on the ground. B Exhaust
gases push down on air while the air pushes up on
the rocket. C The rocket pushes
exhaust gases down while the exhaust gases
push the rocket up. D Gravity pulls the
rocket exhaust down while friction pushes
up against the atmosphere.
25
24 After shooting a cannonball, a cannon
recoils with a much lower velocity than the
cannonball. This is primarily because, compared
to the cannonball, the cannon has a F
much greater mass G smaller amount of
momentum H greater kinetic energy J
smaller force applied to it
26
25 How many newtons of force does a 50.0 kg
deer exert on the ground because of gravity?
Record and bubble in your answer on the answer
document.
27
26 Which factor would most likely cause a
communications satellite orbiting Earth to
return to Earth from its orbit? F An
increase in the satellites forward momentum G
An increase in solar energy striking the
satellite H A decrease in the satellites
size J A decrease in the satellites velocity
28
27 When the air is released from a balloon,
the air moves in one direction, and the balloon
moves in another direction. Which statement
does this situation best illustrate? F What
goes up must come down. G For every action
there is an equal and opposite reaction. H The
shape and size of an object affect air
resistance. J The acceleration due to Earths
gravity is 9.8 m/s2.
29
28 The picture above shows the directions
in which water leaves this scallops shell.
Which picture below shows the direction the
scallop will move? A C B D
30
29 A wet bar of soap slides 1 meter across a
wet tile floor without appearing to slow down.
Which of these statements explains why the bar
of soap fails to slow down? F A constant
force on an object produces a constant positive
acceleration. G An object in motion tends
to remain in motion in the absence of an
external force. H A moving object having
constant velocity contains kinetic energy. J
An objects weight is proportional to its mass.
31
30 Which of these would cause the gravitational
force between Earth and the sun to
decrease? F An increase in the length of a
day on Earth G An increase in the distance
between Earth and the sun H An increase in the
number of planets orbiting the sun J An
increase in the masses of Earth and the sun
32
31 A hockey player pushed a puck toward the
opposite side of a level ice rink. The player
expected the puck to continue all the
way across the ice, but the puck slowed and
stopped before reaching the other side. Which
of these best explains why the puck failed
to slide all the way to the opposite side? F
The pucks temperature changed. G An upward
force acted on the puck. H The pucks momentum
remained unchanged. J An opposing force acted
on the puck.
33
32 The pictures show how an air bag
functions in a collision. How much momentum in
kg m/s does the air bag absorb from the
crash-test dummy if all the crash-test dummys
momentum is absorbed by the air bag? Record and
bubble in your answer to the nearest whole
number on the answer document.
34
33 A leaf from an apple tree falls to the
ground more slowly than an apple falls. As an
explanation of this observation, the
ancient Greeks theory of natural place has
been replaced by a more recent theory involving
gravitational force and A atomic weight B
inertial mass C air resistance D kinetic
energy
35
34 Which setup would require the least force
to move a heavy resistance? A C B
D
36
35 What is the efficiency of a pulley
system if 25 of the energy applied to the
system is converted to heat? A 100 B
75 C 50 D 25
37
36 The diagram shows an electric
motor lifting a 6 N block a distance of 3 m. The
total amount of electrical energy used by the
motor is 30 J. How much energy does the motor
convert to heat? F 9 J G 12 J H 18
J J 21 J
38
37 Which lever arrangement requires the
least effort force to raise a 500 N
resistance? F H G J
39
38 What is the efficiency of an air
conditioner if there is a work input of 320 J
and a work output of 80 J? F 4 G 25 H
240 J 400
40
39 Which configuration of pulleys and belts
shown below will result in the fastest rotation
of Spindle 2? F H G J
41
40 Which of these represents a properly balanced
system? A C B D
42
41 Which lever requires the least effort to lift
the load?
43
42 The image on the screen is
inverted because light rays A condense as
they pass through the pinhole B travel
through the opening in straight lines C
refract as they strike the screen D are
polarized by the materials of the screen
44
43 One tuning fork is struck and placed
next to an identical fork. The two forks do not
touch. The second tuning fork starts to
vibrate because of F interference G
the Doppler effect H resonance J standing
waves
45
44 The pitch of a sound made by plucking a
guitar string is determined by the A
frequency of the vibration produced B
strength of the plucking force C distance
between the strings D shape of the guitar
body
46
45 Which wave has the greatest
velocity? A B C D
47
46 When trying to spear a fish in water, a
person needs to take into account the way light
bends as it moves from water into air. The
bending of light as it passes from one medium
into another is known as F reflection G
refraction H diffraction J polarization
48
Laser Light Striking a DVD 47 When
a DVD is read, laser light touches the DVD
surface and is then measured at location A.
What allows light to return to location A after
striking the DVD surface? F Conduction G
Refraction H Magnification J Reflection
49
48 An empty cup was tightly covered with
plastic wrap, and a few grains of salt were
sprinkled on top of the plastic. When a tuning
fork was struck and placed slightly above the
plastic wrap, the salt began to move. Which
characteristic of waves does the movement of the
salt best demonstrate? A Echo formation B
Diffraction C Resonance D Specular
reflection
50
49 The diagram shows waves approaching a
barrier. Which pattern will be formed after the
waves pass through the opening in the
barrier? A C B D
51
50 A tuning fork with a frequency of 256 Hz
vibrates when struck. Because of these
vibrations, a nearby tuning fork begins to
vibrate without being struck. Which of the
following best accounts for the vibration of
the second tuning fork? F Resonance G
Polarization H Diffraction J Refraction
52
51 Diverging lenses are useful to people who
suffer from nearsightedness because the lenses
can cause images of distant objects to be
focused on the retina. Lenses allow images to be
focused on the retina because of F
diffusion G reflection H diffraction J
refraction
53
52 A guitar player is seated next to a piano.
The piano player strikes an E key on the piano.
The guitarist reports that this causes the E
string on his guitar to vibrate. What is the
name of this phenomenon? A Polarization B
Resonance C Reflection D Diffraction
54
53 A surface wave generated by an
earthquake was recorded at Seismic Station 1.
Forty seconds later the same wave was recorded
at Seismic Station 2. What accounts for the
time difference? F The origin of the wave is
closer to Seismic Station 1. G The speed of
the wave decreases with distance. H The
wavelength is longer at Seismic Station 2. J
The wave frequency increases when the wave
passes through soil.
55
54 Which process best shows the conversion
of solar energy to chemical energy? F
Prevailing winds causing windmills to spin G
Green plants making their own food H Uranium
producing heat to make steam J Tides
generating electricity
56
55 What is the potential energy of
the rock? A 59,900 joules B 64,600
joules C 93,100 joules D 121,600 joules
57
56 Which of the following is an example of
solar energy being converted into chemical
energy? F Plants producing sugar during the
day G Water evaporating and condensing in the
water cycle H The sun unevenly heating
Earths surface J Lava erupting from
volcanoes for many days
58
57 Why is the sum of the products
energy in this reaction less than the sum of the
reactants energy? A Energy is given off as
heat. B The products absorb available
energy. C Energy is trapped in the
reactants. D The reactants energy is less
than the melting point of glucose.
59
58 An inventor claims to have created an
internal combustion engine that converts 100 kJ
of chemical energy from diesel fuel to 140 kJ of
mechanical energy. This claim violates the law
of conservation of F momentum G
inertia H energy J mass
60
59 Assuming the chart contains
all energy transformations in the Earth system,
how much solar radiation goes toward evaporating
water? F 40,000 terajoules G 92,410
terajoules H 121,410 terajoules J 133,410
terajoules
Solar Radiation and Earth Solar Radiation and Earth
Effect Amount of Energy per Second (terajoules)
Solar radiation reaching Earth 173,410
Radiation reflected back into space 52,000
Radiation heating atmosphere, landmasses, and oceans 81,000
Radiation producing winds and ocean currents 370
Radiation used in photosynthesis 40
Radiation resulting in evaporation of water ?
61
60 According to the equation E mc2, mass
F travels at the speed of light G can be
transformed into energy H contains light
energy J is doubled when exposed to light
62
61 What is the approximate difference
in gravitational potential energy of the two
shaded boxes? F 19 J G 39 J H 59 J J
79 J
63
62 The temperature of the water
increases by 8C when the metal block is added.
Which could cause the temperature of the water to
increase by 10C after the metal block is
added? F Using 500 g of water G Using a
larger beaker H Adding more 20C water J
Adding heat to the metal block
Temperature (C) Mass (g)
Metal Block 120 100
Water 20 400
64
63 Because ancient Greeks lived close to water,
they may have enjoyed a more constant climate
than if they had lived inland. Water warms up
and cools down more slowly than land. This is
because of waters F boiling point G
specific heat H melting point J specific
gravity
65
64 How much heat is lost by 2.0 grams of
water if the temperature drops from 31C to
29C? The specific heat of water is 4.184
J/gC. A 4.0 J B 6.2 J C 8.4 J D
16.7 J
66
65 Heat convection occurs in gases and
liquids. Heat convection does not occur in
solids because solids are unable to A
absorb heat by vibrating B transfer heat by
fluid motion C emit radiation by reflecting
light D exchange heat by direct contact
67
66 A solar heater uses energy from the sun
to heat water. The heaters panel is painted
black to F improve emission of infrared
radiation G reduce the heat loss by
convection currents H improve absorption of
infrared radiation J reduce the heaters
conducting properties
68
67 The moons surface becomes hot during
the long lunar day because the sun transfers
heat to the moon. This heat transfer
is accomplished almost entirely through the
process of F convection G
refraction H conduction J radiation
69
68 In which container is the substance unable
to transfer heat by convection? F H
G J
70
Temperatures of Water in Different Containers Temperatures of Water in Different Containers Temperatures of Water in Different Containers
Container Initial Temperature (C) Final Temperature (C)
P 90 83
Q 90 76
69 Container P and Container Q each
were filled with 0.5 liter of water. The water
was heated to 90C. The table shows the
temperatures after both containers were allowed
to cool for 3 minutes. Compared to Container Q,
Container P is a better A conductor B
absorber C radiator D insulator
71
70 The transfer of heat by the movement of air
currents in Earths atmosphere is an example of
A conduction B convection C
radiation D fusion
72
71 An increase in greenhouse gases is
considered harmful because it A allows more
heat to be trapped in the lower atmosphere B
depletes carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C
releases energy trapped inside Earth D
destroys light energy that plants need for
photosynthesis
73
72 Which of these activities can help
conserve natural resources? F Recycling
cardboard boxes G Washing small loads of
laundry H Driving large cars J Building
wooden fences
74
73 In West Texas and Southern California,
high winds drive turbines that generate
electricity. One advantage that wind energy has
over energy generated from solar cells is that
wind energy A is plentiful everywhere B
can be generated at night C produces cleaner
energy D is free of environmental hazards
75
74 Battery-powered cars produce less air
pollution than gasoline- powered cars. However,
one environmental concern of using battery-powere
d cars is that batteries A are heavier
than gasoline engines B waste more energy
than gasoline engines C contain toxic
substances that are difficult to dispose of D
produce direct current rather than alternating
current
76
75 All of these materials can be recycled
except F aluminum G lumber H
glass J coal
77
76 This picture shows a small
section of a solar power plant. Which of these
decreases the energy production at such power
plants? F Cloudy skies G Ozone in the air H
Hot weather J Low humidity
78
77 Which of these produces most of the
compounds responsible for causing acid
rain? A Nuclear fission B Fossil fuels C
Solar cells D Windmills
79
78 Before 1992, in order to prevent hydrogen
gas from being produced, the zinc powder in
some alkaline batteries was covered with
mercury. Mercury is toxic to many life-forms.
Which of the following best explains how
mercury from batteries got into the
environment? A Newly manufactured batteries
were transported long distances. B Operating
batteries increased the temperature of
conductors. C Used batteries discarded in
landfills decomposed. D Voltage loss occurred
between battery terminals.
80
79 One economic benefit of using rechargeable
batteries instead of disposable batteries is
that rechargeable batteries F are cheaper
to manufacture G can be packaged in small
containers H can be used many times J
generate their own electricity
81
80 Electric power plants that burn fossil fuels
generate billions of tons of carbon dioxide and
other gases. How might replacing these power
plants with solar cells affect the
environment? A The amount of water vapor in
the atmosphere might increase. B Less land
might be needed to produce the same amount of
electricity. C Forest fires resulting from
highly flammable emissions might be
avoided. D The amount of released gases
that trap atmospheric heat might be reduced.
82
81 The typical automobiles kinetic energy is
converted to heat energy when the brakes are
applied. A braking system that converts kinetic
energy to electrical energy instead of heat
energy has been designed. The electrical
energy can be used later to move the car again.
How does a system like this benefit the
environment? F Greater use of solar
energy G Ability to harness wind energy H
Decreased use of fossil fuels J Use of
renewable hydroelectricity
83
82 Heavy metals such as mercury, cadmium, and
nickel are often found in landfills and
occasionally leach into rivers, lakes, and other
bodies of water. Such heavy metals are toxic to
wildlife and to humans. Which of the following
sources of environmental contamination is most
often associated with these heavy metals? F
Batteries G Plastics H Automobile
exhaust J Tobacco smoke
84
83 Which of these is an advantage of producing
electricity using solar power plants rather
than using coal-fired power plants? A Solar
power plants can operate for about 10 hours per
day. B Solar power plants can produce variable
amounts of energy. C Solar power plants
produce fewer pollutants. D Solar power plants
require continuous sunlight.
85
84 Which of these devices uses the suns energy
directly? A Windmill B Hydroelectric
dam C Nuclear power plant D Photovoltaic
cell
86
85 A company has decided to market itself as
environmentally friendly. If the company is
going to sell calculators, the use of which
energy source would produce the fewest
by-products and the least waste? F
Rechargeable batteries G Solar cells H
Dry-cell batteries J Tesla coils
87
Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key
88

Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
1 A 5 IPC 4A 2002 Info Booklet 14
2 D 5 IPC 4A 2004 Info Booklet 25
3 D 5 IPC 4A 2003 TAKS 27
4 F 5 IPC 4A 2003 TAKS 42
5 B 5 IPC 4A 2003 TAKS 45
6 H 5 IPC 4A Apr 2004 TAKS 54
7 C 5 IPC 4A Jul 2004 TAKS 21
8 A 5 IPC 4A Jul 2004 TAKS 41
9 H 5 IPC 4A Apr 2006 TAKS 12
10 J 5 IPC 4A Apr 2006 TAKS 18
11 J 5 IPC 4A Apr 2006 TAKS 32
12 C 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 7
13 J 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 26
14 D 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 41
15 J 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 50
16 H 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 22
17 H 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 26
18 C 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 49
19 D 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 51
20 G 5 IPC 4A Jul 2006 TAKS 24
21 B 5 IPC 4B 2004 Info Booklet 22
22 C 5 IPC 4B 2003 TAKS 11
23 C 5 IPC 4B Apr 2004 TAKS 41
24 F 5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 12
25 490 5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 20
89

Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
26 J 5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 38
27 G 5 IPC 4B Apr 2006 TAKS 52
28 D 5 IPC 4B Oct 2005 TAKS 11
29 G 5 IPC 4B Oct 2005 TAKS 44
30 G 5 IPC 4B Feb 2006 TAKS 46
31 J 5 IPC 4B Jul 2006 TAKS 8
32 630 5 IPC 4B Jul 2006 TAKS 20
33 C 5 IPC 4B Fall 2005 TAKS 17
34 C 5 IPC 4D 2002 Info Booklet 13
35 B 5 IPC 4D 2004 Info Booklet 23
36 G 5 IPC 4D 2003 TAKS 48
37 F 5 IPC 4D Apr 2004 TAKS 46
38 G 5 IPC 4D Jul 2004 TAKS 10
39 H 5 IPC 4D Apr 2006 TAKS 22
40 C 5 IPC 4D Apr 2006 TAKS 29
41 F 5 IPC 4D Apr 2006 TAKS 50
42 B 5 IPC 5B 2004 Info Booklet 21
43 H 5 IPC 5B 2003 TAKS 32
44 A 5 IPC 5B Apr 2004 TAKS 55
45 B 5 IPC 5B Jul 2004 TAKS 7
46 G 5 IPC 5B Jul 2004 TAKS 14
47 J 5 IPC 5B Apr 2006 TAKS 6
48 C 5 IPC 5B Apr 2006 TAKS 17
49 B 5 IPC 5B Oct 2005 TAKS 3
50 F 5 IPC 5B Oct 2005 TAKS 32
90

Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
51 J 5 IPC 5B Feb 2006 TAKS 24
52 B 5 IPC 5B Jul 2006 TAKS 39
53 F 5 IPC 5B Fall 2005 TAKS 42
54 G 5 IPC 6A 2003 TAKS 14
55 C 5 IPC 6A 2003 TAKS 41
56 F 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 12
57 A 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 37
58 H 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 48
59 F 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 52
60 G 5 IPC 6A Oct 2005 TAKS 52
61 G 5 IPC 6A Feb 2006 TAKS 38
62 J 5 IPC 6A Fall 2005 TAKS 8
63 G 5 IPC 6A Fall 2005 TAKS 18
64 D 5 IPC 6B 2004 Info Booklet 24
65 B 5 IPC 6B 2003 TAKS 43
66 H 5 IPC 6B 2003 TAKS 50
67 J 5 IPC 6B Apr 2004 TAKS 8
68 J 5 IPC 6B Apr 2004 TAKS 42
69 D 5 IPC 6B Jul 2004 TAKS 43
70 B 5 IPC 6B Jul 2006 TAKS 13
71 A 5 IPC 6B Fall 2005 TAKS 27
72 F 5 IPC 6D 2003 TAKS 54
73 B 5 IPC 6D Apr 2004 TAKS 45
74 C 5 IPC 6D Jul 2004 TAKS 49
75 J 5 IPC 6D Jul 2004 TAKS 54
91

Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number
76 F 5 IPC 6D Apr 2006 TAKS 4
77 B 5 IPC 6D Apr 2006 TAKS 37
78 C 5 IPC 6D Oct 2005 TAKS 39
79 H 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 2
80 D 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 13
81 H 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 16
82 F 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 44
83 C 5 IPC 6D Jul 2006 TAKS 9
84 D 5 IPC 6D Jul 2006 TAKS 19
85 G 5 IPC 6D Jul 2006 TAKS 28