Title: VNM utility and Risk Aversion
1VNM utility and Risk Aversion
- The desire of investors to avoid risk, that is
variations in the value of their portfolio of
holdings or to smooth their consumption across
states of nature is a primary motive for
financial contracting - Now we use the VNM framework and place some
restrictions on it to capture some elements of
risk
2What does the term risk aversion mean about an
agents utility function?
- Consider a financial contract where the potential
investor either receives an amount h with
probability pr ½ or must pay an amount h with
probability pr ½
3We would not accept this offer
- The most basic sense of risk aversion implies
that for any level of wealth, W, a risk-averse
investor would not wish to own such a security - In utility terms, this proposition means
- U(W) gt 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h) expected
utility, where - 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h) VNM utility
4Risk aversion and utility
- U(W) gt 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h) says
- that the slope of the utility function decreases
as the agent becomes wealthier - The marginal utility, d(U(W))/d(W), decreases
with increasing W - d(U(W))/d(W) gt 0
- d2(U(W))/d(W)2 ? 0
- this is similar to our utility properties
discussion
5Measuring Risk Aversion
The utility of the linear combination is greater
than the linear combination
U(W)
U0.5(Wh) 0.5(W-h) gt 0.5U(Wh) 0.5U(W-h)
U(W h)
U0.5(Wh) 0.5(W-h)
0.5U(Wh) 0.5U(W-h)
U(W h)
W-h W Wh
W
6The Arrow-Pratt Measures of Risk Aversion
- Absolute risk aversion
- - U??(W)/U?(W) RA(W)
- Relative risk aversion
- -WU??(W)/U?(W) RR(W)
- Risk aversion means U?(W) gt 0 and U??(W) ? 0 with
U? first derivative (slope) and U?? second
derivative or change in slope - The inverse of these measures gives a measure of
risk tolerance
7The risk averse concept
- We learned earlier, that a risk averse investor
will not accept the proposition - 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h), since U(W) gt 1/2U(W
h) 1/2U(W h) - That is U(W) gt prU(W h) (1-pr)U(W h) for h
some payoff or payout - So what odds of the combination of payoff or
payout will they accept?
8- But note that any investor will accept such a bet
if pr is high enough, particularly if pr 1 - And reject the offer if pr is small, and surely
reject if pr 0 - The willingness to accept this opportunity
presumably is related to the level of current
wealth
9- Let pr pr(W, h) be the probability at which an
agent is indifferent between accepting or
rejecting the investment - It can be shown (using mathematics of more
advanced finance) that - pr(W, h) ½ 1/4hRA(W)
- The higher the measure of absolute risk aversion,
RA(W), the more favorable odds the agent will
demand to take up the offer
10Comparing agents
- If we have two investors, say A and B, and
- If RA(W)A RA(W)B , then investor A will always
demand more favorable odds than investor B - In this sense, investor A is more risk averse
11An Example
- Consider the family of VNM utility-in-money
functions of the form - U(W) -(1/v)e(-vW) the exponential utility
function for v a parameter - For this case, pr(W,h) ½ 1/4hv
- Since RA(W) -U??/U? -ve(-vW)/(-v/-v)e(-vW)
v by just forming the ratio of the appropriate
second and first derivatives of this utility
function
12- So the odds requested by an agent with this type
of preference (utility) are independent of the
initial level of wealth, W - On the other hand, the more wealth at risk (h),
the greater the odds of a favorable outcome
demanded
13- This expression advances the parameter, v, as the
natural measure of the degree of risk aversion
appropriate to this set of preferences (utility
function) - Lets try another set of preferences such as the
logarithmic utility function given by Ln(W)
14- Again, RA(W) -U??/U?, but this gives us
- RA(W) 1/W, if we take the appropriate second
and first derivatives of Ln(W) - Why? -U??/U? -(-1/W2 )/(1/W) 1/W
- So pr(W,h) ½ 1/4hRA(W)
- ½ 1/4h(1/W), or ½ (¼)h/W
- So in this case, the odds that the agent must
have are related to h relative to initial wealth,
W
15Risk that is a proportion of the investors wealth
- In this case, h ?W, where ? is some constant
of proportionality, like 0.3 or 0.5, in which the
payoff or the payment would be 30 or 50 of
wealth - Now, pr(W,?) represents the odds that an investor
would have to have to take up an offer such as we
have been representing as 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W
h), if the investor is risk averse
16- By a derivation similar to the pr(W,h) case
(using advanced mathematics in finance) - Pr(W,?) ½ 1/4?RR(W)
- Or the odds are a function of the degree of risk
of wealth, ?, and the measure of relative risk
aversion (not absolute risk aversion as in the
previous case)
17An example
- Now let the utility function be given by a
somewhat more complicated utility function as - U(W) W(1-?)/(1-?), for ? being a parameter
that is greater than 1 - Just a note here--- if ? 1, then U(W) Ln(W),
like the last example - This general function is also a VNM utility
function
18- In the general case for ? gt 1, we find RR(W) -
WU??/U? -W(-?W(-?-1))/W-? -(-?W/W) ?, by
taking the appropriate second and first
derivatives of the utility function - So pr(W,?) ½ 1/4?? are the odds that an
investor has to have in order take up the
proposition of an investment that gives a payoff
and also can require a payment -- h
19- In this case, the investor demands a probability
of success that is related to the proportion of
wealth at risk and the utility parameter ?, and ?
gt 1 - Furthermore, if there are two investors, A and B,
and ?A gt ?B, the investor with ? ?A will always
demand a higher probability of success than will
investor B with ? ?B, for the same fraction, ?,
of wealth at risk
20- In this sense, a higher ? denotes a greater
degree of risk aversion for this investor class - Now, with the case of ? 1, the probability
expression pr(W, ?) , becomes pr(W, ?) ½ 1/4? - In which case the requested odds of winning a
payoff are not a function of initial wealth, W
21- The odds in this case depend on the proportion of
wealth that is at risk - The lower is the fraction of wealth that is at
risk (the lower is ?), the more investors are
willing to consider entering into a fair bet ( a
risky opportunity where the probabilities of
success or failure are both ½) as in the
investment 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h)
22- But in the case where ? gt1 ----- then pr(W, ?)
½ 1/4??, where ? gt1, the investors demand
higher probability of success than in the case
where ? 1
23The odds have to be greater than even to accept,
under risk aversion
- Under the assumption of risk aversion, then what
we have been developing is the fact that a risk
averse investor has to have greater than even
odds to accept a proposition of 1/2U(W h)
1/2U(W h), which is even odds of a payoff
versus a payment
24Risk neutral investors
- One class of investors demands special mention
--- these are the risk neutral investors (like
banks in some cases) - This class of investors has considerable
influence on the financial equilibria in which
they participate - This class of investor is identified with utility
functions of linear form U(W) cW d, for c, d
constants and c gt 0
25- Both of our measures of risk aversion give the
same results for this class of investor - RA(W) 0 RR(W)
- Whether measured as a proportion of wealth or as
an absolute amount of money at risk, these
investors do not demand better than even odds
when considering risky investments of the type we
have been considering
26- This class of investors are indifferent to risk
- They are only concerned with an assets expected
payoff - Depending on the portfolio under consideration,
it is generally considered that banks belong to
this class --- they certainly do have weight in
the conditions of financial equilibrium
27Prospect Theory
- UNDER VNM EXPECTED UTILITY, THE UTILITY FUNCTION
IS DEFINED OVER ACTUAL PAYOFF OUTCOMES - UNDER PROSPECT THEORY, PREFERENCES ARE DEFINED,
NOT OVER ACTUAL PAYOFFS, BUT RATHER OVER GAINS
AND LOSSES RELATIVE TO SOME BENCHMARK
28UTILITY FUNCTION FOR PROSPECT THEORY
UTILITY
50
0 --
- 150 - 200
1000 W?
WEALTH W
29INVESTORS UTILITY FUNCTION
- U(W) (W - W?)(1 - ?1)/(1-?1), IF W gt W?
- AND,
- U(W) -?(W-W?)(1-?2)/(1-?2), IF Wlt W?
- W? DENOTES THE BENCHMARK PAYOFF
- ? gt 1 CAPTURES THE EXTENT OF THE INVESTORS
AVERSION TO LOSSES RELATIVE TO BENCHMARK - ?1 AND ?2 NEED NOT COINCIDE
30- SO THE CURVATURE MAY DIFFER FOR DEVIATIONS ABOVE
AND BELOW THE BENCHMARK - SO THE PARAMETERS COULD HAVE A LARGE IMPACT ON
THE RELATIVE RANKING OF UNCERTAIN INVESTMENT
PAYOFF
31- NOT ALL TRANSACTIONS ARE AFFECTED BY LOSS
AVERSION SINCE, IN NORMAL CIRCUMSTANCES, ONE DOES
NOT SUFFER A LOSS IN TRADING A GOOD - BUT AN INVESTORS WILLINGNESS TO HOLD A FINANCIAL
ASSET SUCH AS STOCKS MAY BE SIGNIFICANTLY
AFFECTED IF LOSSES HAVE BEEN EXPERIENCED IN PRIOR
PERIODS