Title: Certification Exam: Tricks of the Trade
1Certification Exam Tricks of the Trade
- Barbara Resnick, PhD,CRNP
- Ethel Mitty, PhD, RN
2Assisted Living Nurse Certification Exam
- Facts about the Exam, Item Distribution and
Testing Process
3Facts about the exam
- Based, in part, on AALNA survey conducted in
early 2005 about knowledge and skills important
to AL nurses. - Content is evidence-based, where possible draws
on current nursing theory and knowledge current
regulations affecting older adults demographics
facts on aging etc.. - Examination was vetted and revised pursuant to
expert and assisted living nurses feedback most
recently, March, 2009.
4Examination Process
- Administered on-line account creation is done on
line and requires a specific user name and
password. - Takes about 2 hours to complete once started, it
must be completed. - Exam can be taken at least two more times in the
event of failure to pass. - On passing the exam, the Assisted Living Nurse
Certification certificate is mailed in
approximately 14 days. - Nurse can place on ID badge C-AL (Certified in
Assisted Living). - Certification is good for four years.
- To renew the certificate, documentation must be
provided of at least 20 hours of continuing
education specific to assisted living nursing or
healthcare of the older adult approved by the NAB
or ANCC.
5Testing Domains
- Four areas tested based on the certification
- exams administered by the ANCC (American Nurses
Credentialing Center) - Primary care considerations
- Major Health Problems/Review of Systems
- Organization of Health Care Delivery
- Professional Practice
6Primary Care Considerations (approx. 20)
- The Aging Population demographics, normal aging
changes, attitudes stereotypes, health
promotion (screening, immunizations, nutrition,
CAM. Environment (safety, relocation,
transportation, comm. resources), culture
ethnicity, spirituality, autonomy, sexuality,
pharmacology (Beers Criteria) - contd. next slide
7Primary Care Considerations, contd
- Theories nursing, aging, family, motivational
- Communication includes learning theory
principles, education, history-taking,
interviewing and comm. techniques - Death and Dying hospice/palliative care, beliefs
and traditions, grieving
8Major Health Problems/Review of Systems (50)
- CV, Resp, GI, GU, Urinary/Repro, Hematology,
Musculoskeletal, Metabolic Endocrine,
Immunology, Neuro, Psych, Skin, Sensory, Meds,
Pain - Plan of care development and evaluation
- Physical/psychosocial assessment (instruments)
9Organizational Health Policy (15)
- Health care delivery systems interdisc, case
mgmnt, discharge planning, referrals - Types the continuum
- Institutional NH, AL, Rehab, acute care/subacute
- Federal regs OAA, ADA, HIPAA, Ombudsman
- Reimbursement SS, SSI, M/are, M/aid, LTCI,
Managed care, other
10Professional Issues (15)
- Scope and Standards of practice
- Leadership management styles planning and
decision making, delegation, communicating,
conflict mgmnt, PE, QI, Staff Dev, Change Theory,
Policy procedure dev evidence-based practice - Research Human subject protection, nursing
research process, research utilization - contd. next page
11Professional Issues, contd.
- Ethical Legal issues Client elder neglect,
advocacy, rights, informed consent, advance
directives, mental capacity issues, organ
transplant. Nurse ethics values,
accountability and competency, negligence and
malpractice, risk mgmnt - Gerontological nursing trends and issues hx of
geri nursing, roles, dev, professional orgs
12Test Taking Ability
- How you approach and take the test is critical
- Preparation is critical
- Focus is critical
13General POINTS
- DO NOT ANSWER QUESTIONS BASED ON WHAT YOU DO IN
REAL WORLD SETTINGS - In certification exams we make questions and
answers that can be found in any general
geriatric test.not your individual site. - Go with what is evidence based
14Test Taking Skills
- Test Taking
- Read the directions carefully
- If there is time, quickly look through the test
for an overviewNote key terms, jot down brief
notes - Answer questions in a strategic order
- Answer easy questions first
- With objective tests, first eliminate those
answers you know - Review make sure you answer all questions look
for simple/stupid mistakes - Change answers to questions if you made a
mistake, or misread the question - Decide on and adopt study strategies that work
best
15 Tips
- Tips on answering multiple choice questions Read
the question before you look at the answer. - Come up with the answer in your head before
looking at the possible answers, this way the
choices given on the test won't throw you off or
trick you. - Eliminate answers you know aren't right.
- Read all the choices before choosing your answer.
- If there is no guessing penalty, always take an
educated guess and select an answer. - Don't keep on changing your answer, usually your
first choice is the right one, unless you misread
the question.
16 Tips
- In "All of the above" and "None of the above"
choices, if you are certain one of the statements
is true don't choose "None of the above" or one
of the statements are false don't choose "All of
the above". - In a question with an "All of the above" choice,
if you see that at least two correct statements,
then "All of the above" is probably the answer. - A positive choice is more likely to be true than
a negative one. - Usually the correct answer is the choice with the
most information.
17None of these strategies is infalliblebut
- Responses that use absolute words, such as
"always" or "never" are less likely to be correct
than ones that use conditional words like
"usually" or "probably." - "Funny" responses are usually wrong.
- "All of the above" is often a correct response.
If you can verify that more than one of the other
responses is probably correct, then choose "all
of the above." - "None of the above" is usually an incorrect
response, but this is less reliable than the "all
of the above" rule. Be very careful not to be
trapped by double negatives. - Look for grammatical clues. If the stem ends with
the indefinite article "an," for example, then
the correct response probably begins with a
vowel.
18Cont
- The longest response is often the correct one,
because the instructor tends to load it with
qualifying adjectives or phrases. - Look for verbal associations. A response that
repeats key words that are in the stem is likely
to be correct. - If all else fails, choose response (b) or (c).
Many instructors subconsciously feel that the
correct answer is "hidden" better if it is
surrounded by distractors. Response (a) is
usually least likely to be the correct one.
19Additional Tips
- Circle or underline important words in the item.
This will help you focus on the information most
needed to identify the correct answer choice.
20Additional Tips
- Read all the answer choices before selecting one.
It is just as likely for the last answer choice
to be correct as the first.
21Additional Tips
- Cross out answer choices you are certain are not
correct. This will help you narrow down the
correct answer choice.
22Additional Tips
- Look for two answer choices that are opposites.
One of these two answer choices is likely to be
correct.
23Additional Tips
- Look for hints about the correct answer choice in
other items on the test. The correct answer
choice may be part of another item on the test.
24Additional Tips
- Look for answer choices that contain language
used by your teacher or found in your textbooks.
An answer choice that contains such language is
usually correct.
25Additional Tips
- Do not change your initial answer unless you are
sure another answer choice is correct. More often
than not, your first choice is correct.
26Additional Tips
- Choose "all of the above" if you are certain all
other answer choices in the item are correct. Do
not choose "all of the above" if even just one of
the other answer choices is not correct.
27Additional Tips
- Choose "none of the above" if you are certain all
other answer choices in the item are incorrect.
Do not choose "none of the above" if even just
one of the other answer choices is correct.
28Tricks of the Trade T/F Questions
- When you do not know the answer. Mark it true!
- There are generally more true questions on
true-false exams than false questions. - It is difficult to make a false statement look
true! - Specific detail in the statement may also tend to
make it true. For example, the statement "Babe
Ruth hit 60 home runs in one season" has specific
detail and is more likely to be true. - Look for any factor that will make a statement
false. - It is easy to add a false part to an otherwise
true statement. - Dont read the question and see some truth and
quickly assume that the entire statement is true.
For example, "Water boils at 212 degrees in
Denver." Water does boil at 212 degrees, but not
at Denvers altitude.
29Tricks of the Trade T/F Questions
- Look for extreme modifiers that tend to make the
question false. Extreme modifiers, such as
always, all, never, or only make it more likely
that the question is false. Here is a more
complete list of EXTREME modifiers. - all
- none
- best
- absolutely
- always
- never
- worst
- absolutely not
- only
- nobody
- everybody
- certainly
- invariably
- no one
- everyone
- certainly not
-
30Tricks of the Trade T/F Questions
- Qualifying words tend to make a question true.
Qualifiers (seldom, often, many) increase the
likelihood that the statement is true. Here is a
more complete list of QUALIFIERS. - usually
- frequently
- often
- sometimes
- some
- seldom
- many
- much
- probably
- a majority
- apt to
- most
- might
- a few
- may
- unlikely
-
31Tricks of the Trade T/F Questions
- BE CAREFUL when there are negative words or
prefixes - The prefixes (un-, im-, miss-) will alter the
meaning of the statement. - Double negatives make a positive. For example
"not uncommon" actually means common. - Questions that state a reason tend to be false.
- Words in the statement that cause justification
or reason (since, because, when, if) tend to make
the statement false. - Pay close attention, the reason that is given may
be incorrect or incomplete. - Older adults commonly have hip fxs because they
all have osteoporosis - Pay close attention, the reason that is given may
be incorrect or incomplete. - There is no substitute for the truth.
- Many concentrated hours of study to force facts
into your memory is the best way to prepare
true-false questions. - YOU may, however, have to apply the fact to a
slightly different situation.
32Tricks of the Trade T/F Questions
- Formulate your own answer before reading the
options. - Focus on finding an answer without the help of
the alternatives. - This process will increase your concentration.
- Doing this will help you feel more confident
about your answer . - Eliminate unlikely answers first.
- Eliminating two alternatives quickly may increase
your probability to 50/50 or better. - Use the true-false methods described earlier and
find the false alternative. - Select numbered answers from the middle range,
not the extremes. - For example, if the height of a mountain is
requested, eliminate 20,000 feet (high), and
3,000 feet (low). Then choose between 8,000 feet
and 11,000 feet. - Select answers that are longer and more
descriptive. - Longer (true) answers stand out and contain more
detail. - Shorter (false) answers are created quickly as
throw aways. - Descriptive detail is given to help you identify
the truth.
33Examples of Multiple Choice Questions
- 1. Canada's population is closest to about
- 5 of America's population
- 10 of America's population
- 15 of America's population
- 20 of America's population
- Knowledge
- 2. The permanent set of teeth in a human adult
including wisdom teeth numbers - 28
- 30
- 32
- 34
- 32go with the middle range
- 3. Which of the following is not a mammal
- Bat
- horse
- whale
- shark
- Knowledge and eliminate the ridiculous or known
-
34Multiple Choice Questions
- 4. Which one of these birds does not have
feathers - Penguin
- Ostrich
- Eagle
- Robin
- they all have feathers
- DUHknowledge
- 5. A healthy day's food would include all but
- 10-11 servings of the bread and cereals group
- 5-6 servings of the meat group
- 2-3 servings of the dairy group
- 2-3 servings of the fruit and vegetable group
- sweets and oils sparingly
- Knowledge / meat would be unhealthy
35Multiple Choice Questions
- 6. Which of the following is true about hypnosis
- It is not real.
- Depth of hypnosis is determined by subjects
response. - Most people cannot be hypnotized.
- Weak-minded people are hypnotized easier.
- Knowledgeor eliminate what you do know
- 7. When formulating goals into specific
activities, one should - Give priority to activities done easiest.
- Overrule any previously scheduled appointments.
- Make sure activities have a date, time, and place
to ensure their fulfillment. - Wait two weeks or until no longer busy to start
activities. - Knowledge (date, time and place make sense)
36Multiple Choice Questions
- 8. Drug and alcohol abuse
- is the major cause of racism
- doesn't always lead to death
- are major causes of family breakups
- is coincident with rock and roll
- Doesnt alwaysmakes grammatical sense
- 9. Teachers
- are concerned with the welfare of every student
- can help students by encouraging critical
thinking - are unfair
- are all critical thinkers
- Eliminate the absolutes
37Examples of T/F Questions
- 1. All trees except pine trees molt their leaves
in the fall. - Falsetoo absolute
- 2. Water is less dense in its liquid state.
- Tjust got to know it!
- 3. Dieting combined with consistent exercise will
usually aid in weight loss. - Tusually likely to be true as it is less
definitive - 4. More women suffer from anorexia than men
because men don't worry about appearance as much.
- Fexample of a true statement with a because that
is false - 5. In car technology the Japanese far exceed the
Americans. 6. Shakespeare wrote the Bible. - Ffar exceeds is impossible to achieve
38- 1. According to statistics, which is responsible
for causing the most disability in persons 85
years and older? - Cardiovascular disease
- Dementia
- Diabetes mellitus
- Hip fracture
- The leading cause of disability over age 85 is
dementia. Nearly 20 of persons over age 85 are
disabled with dementia. Persons with heart
failure may have the lowest quality of life.
Diabetes mellitus affects 1 of persons over age
85. Diabetes mellitus is associated with heart
disease and stroke which may cause earlier death
therefore not affecting the over age 85 group as
much. Hip fracture affects nearly 9 of adults
over age 85.
39- 2. Normal age-related change in the lungs is
associated with - Bronchial hyperreactivity
- Decreased FEV1
- Increased chest wall compliance
- Mucus hypersecretion
- With aging there is a graduate decline in the
FEV1, increased residual capacity and slight
decline in the PaO2. There is also decreased
chest wall compliance the intercostal muscles
and cartilage are less flexible. Bronchial
reactivity is unchanged, and hyper reactivity
would be associated with asthma. Merck Manual
online. -
40- 3. A nurse at an AL has a resident, who is DNH,
with substernal chest pain, sweaty and nauseated.
After administration of prn sublingual
nitroglycerin the next action is to - Administer oxygen
- Call the primary MD/NP
- Check oxygen saturation via pulse oxymetry
- Give aspirin 160 325 mg
- It is important to prioritize the response.
Myocardial damage is caused by hypoxia, so oxygen
should be administered first in anyone who is
suspected of having a myocardial infarction or
experiencing angina. If not allergic to aspirin a
chewable aspirin should be given after starting
oxygen. While oxygen saturation may be helpful in
determining response to oxygen, it is more
important to first administer the treatment
before monitoring the oxygen level. The third
component is to control pain, which is not a
choice given here.
41- 4. The Patient Self-Determination Act (1991)
requires that - a. All patients enrolling in HMOs or admitted to
hospitals, NHs must complete an Advanced
Directive. - b. All patients who are hospitalized be given a
copy of the hospitals bill of rights. - c. All patients entering a hospital, HMO, or
nursing home be informed about their right to
make an Advanced Directive. - d. An ombudsman be appointed to inform residents
in nursing homes of their rights.
42- 5. Which of the following is true about
decision-making capacity? - a. It can only be determined by a psychiatrist
- b. It can only be determined by a judge.
- c. It can only be decided using the Folstein
mini-mental status exam - d. It can be determined by the primary care
provider. - e. It is the same thing as incompetence.
43- 6. Delirium only occurs if the patient already
has dementia. True or False - a. True
- b. False
44- 7. Precipitants of delirium include all but one
of the following - a. Vitamin supplements
- b. Acute medical illness such as pneumonia
- c. Sedative medicines used for insomnia
- d. Anemia (hct less than 30)
- e. Foley catheter
-
45- 8. Which of the following statements is true
about pressure ulcer care? - a. A moist wound base is desirable.
- b. When you suspect bacterial contamination, you
should obtain a surface swab culture of the
wound. - c. You should always select an absorbent
dressing. - d. Dressings should be changed at least every
day. - e. Irrigate the wound with an antiseptic
solution at each dressing change.
46- 9. Consequences of chronic pain include which of
the following - a. Decreased socialization
- b. Sleep disturbance
- c. Increased health care utilization and costs
- d. Depression
- e. All of the above
47- You call a provider with concerns about
increased agitation in a patient with moderate
dementia. You should provide the following
critical clinical information - The residents allergies
- Proxys phone number
- Her weight
- What behavior modification techniques have the
staff tried
48New Clinical Tidbits CVD
- myocardial ischemia caused by CAD is more
commonly manifested by dyspnea on exertion than
by chest pain typical of angina pectoris. - angina pectoris can present as back or shoulder
pain or as burning epigastric pain. Substernal
(below the sternum) anginal pain is less common
in older adults. - Angina pectoris pain in older adults can be less
severe and of shorter duration than presentation
in a younger individual. - Myocardial ischemia can cause clinical heart
failure (HF) and acute pulmonary edema. - Heart failure generally is associated with
increased shortness of breath due to fluid
accumulation throughout the body (legs, lungs,
abdomen, face). -
49New Clinical Tidbits CVD
- Other symptoms associated with acute MI in older
adults include peripheral gangrene, increased
claudication (cramping in the calves with
activity), palpitations, kidney failure,
weakness, pulmonary embolism, restlessness,
sweating, and sudden death. - Older adults with acute MI are more likely than
younger persons to die from the MI and to have
pulmonary edema, HF, left ventricular (LV)
systolic dysfunction (impaired pumping of the
left ventricle), cardiogenic shock, conduction
disturbances requiring insertion of a pacemaker,
atrial fibrillation (AF) or atrial flutter. THEY
ARE SICK!
50Clinical Tidbits CHF
- Symptoms
- Dyspnea is the most common symptom
- Pulmonary congestion from fluid in the lungs may
cause coughing and wheezing. - Decreased cardiac output can cause weakness, a
feeling of heaviness in the limbs, nocturia,
oliguria, confusion, insomnia, headache, anxiety,
memory impairment, bad dreams or nightmares, and,
rarely, psychotic manifestations. - Increased fluid in the liver can occur and may
cause epigastric or right upper quadrant
heaviness or a dull ache, a sense of fullness
after eating, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. - Right ventricular failure causes edema that
first occurs in the dependent parts of the body. - Chest x-ray for residents with suspected HF will
show pulmonary vascular congestion in those with
LV failure.
51Clinical Tidbits CHF
- Precipitating causes of HF, such as excess sodium
ingestion (e.g. pickles, potato chips),
myocardial ischemia, infection, anemia, fever,
hypoxia, tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias,
hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and obesity must
be identified and treated. - THINK IT THRU!
52Sodium
- Sodium intake should be decreased to between
1500mg to no more than 2400mg/day, equal to about
1 tsp of salt. - FOODS?
- Weigh daily and look for 2 pound changes
53Beta Blockers
- Useful if the resident has a nl ejection
fraction (gt50) - Reducing the heart rate to lt 90 beats per minute,
thereby increasing the time the LV has to fill
and increasing the volume of blood that is pumped
throughout the body. - Feeds the heart better
- Prevents more hypertrophy
54Diuretic Tidbits
- Mild HF can be treated with a thiazide diuretic.
- Thiazide is ineffective if the estimated
glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is lt 30 mL per
minute - Older adults with moderate or severe HF should be
treated with a loop diuretic (e.g., furosemide),
so named because of where it works in the kidney.
- Those with severe HF or concomitant renal
insufficiency may need metolazone in addition to
the loop diuretic. - Aldosterone antagonist diuretics can be used in
older adults who have a normal estimated GFR and
a normal serum potassium.
55Atrial Fibrillation
- AF is the most common type of arrhythmia in
adults it is more common as people age. - Cardiac conditions associated with the
development of AF are hypertension, rheumatic
mitral valve disease, CAD, and HF. - Noncardiac causes include hyperthyroidism,
hypoxic pulmonary conditions, surgery, and
alcohol abuse. - People with AF may have an irregularly irregular
heart rate , palpitations and lightheadedness, or
more vague symptoms, such as malaise. - Treatment slow rate fix rhythm? Prevent blood
clots. of AF in older adults with HF requires
evaluation of their heart rate and rhythm, and
prevention of a clot.