Proficiency Review

1
Proficiency Review

• Questions 1-60

2

• Why do atoms bond to one another?
• a. to gain an octet of electrons
• b. to become happy atoms
• c. to gain kinetic energy
• d. to become lower in potential energy

3

• Why do atoms bond to one another?
• a. to gain an octet of electrons. This only
  happens in covalent bonding
• b. to become happy atoms. It has not been proven
  that atoms have emotions
• c. to gain kinetic energy. A bond is formed
  because of a very large decrease in the kinetic
  energy due to the molecular orbital having a
  significantly decreased
• gradient in the bond region.
• d. to become lower in potential energy. By
  decreasing its potential energy an atom creates a
  more stable arrangement of matter.

4

• 2. Which equation is not consistent with
• the law of conservation of mass?
• a. S O2 ? SO2
• b. KClO3 ? KCl O2
• c. CaCO3 ? CaO CO2
• d. Ca S ? CaS

5

• Which equation is not consistent with the law of
  conservation of mass?
• a. S O2 ? SO2 This has equal numbers of each
  atom on each side of the equation.
• b. KClO3 ? KCl O2 The number of Oxygen atoms
  on each side of the equation is different.
• c. CaCO3 ? CaO CO2 This has equal
  numbers of each atom on each side of the
  equation.
• d. Ca S ? CaS This has equal numbers of each
  atom on each side of the equation.

6

• Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reactions
  cause
• a. atomic nuclei to change.
• b. electrons to release large
• amounts of energy.
• c. protons and electrons to split.
• d. neutrons and electrons to
• fuse.

7

• Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reactions
  cause
• a. atomic nuclei to change. Fusion is when the
  nuclei of two small atoms join to form a larger
  nucleus Fission is when one large atomic nucleus
  splits into two or more smaller nuclei.
• b. electrons to release large amounts of energy.
  Both process deal with the nucleus of an atom and
  not the surround electrons.
• c. protons and electrons to split. Electrons
  cannot be broken down into smaller particles.
• d. neutrons and electrons to fuse. Fission is
  when nuclei break apart so fusion is impossible
  here.

8

• In an isotope for a particular element,
• a. the number of neutrons vary.
• b. the numbers of electrons vary.
• c. the number of protons vary.
• d. radioactivity is always emitted.

9

• 4. In an isotope for a particular element,
• a. the number of neutrons vary. This is TRUE
  the different number of neutrons causes isotopes
  of the same element to have different mass
  numbers.
• b. the numbers of electrons vary. The number of
  electrons does not affect differences between
  isotopes of same element.
• c. the number of protons vary. A change in the
  number of protons would change the identity of
  the element in question.
• d. radioactivity is always emitted. Only
  unstable atoms are capable of giving off
  radioactive energy. Not all isotopes are unstable.

10

• 5. What type of attractive force is found
  between atoms that are bonded to one another?
• a. electrostatic
• b. magnetic
• c. gravitational
• d. nuclear

11

• 5. What type of attractive force is found
  between atoms that are bonded to one another?
• a. electrostatic This is the force of attraction
  between an electron and the nucleus of an atom.
  When electrons of one atom are more strongly
  attracted to the nucleus of another atom it cause
  the two atoms to come together in a chemical
  bond.
• b. magnetic This is a force that is caused by a
  magnetic field and will be exerted on any nearby
  charged particle.
• c. gravitational This is the force shared
  between the masses of two bodies.
• d. nuclear This is the force of attraction
  between protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an
  atom.

12
6. A student hits a hockey puck which slides
across a frozen lake. The force required to
keep the puck sliding at a constant velocity
across the ice is a. zero Newtons. b.
equal to the weight of the puck. c. the weight
of the puck divided by the mass of
the puck. d. the mass of the puck multiplied by
the weight of the puck.
13

• 6. A student hits a hockey puck which slides
  across a frozen lake. The force required to keep
  the puck sliding at a constant velocity across
  the ice is
• a. zero Newtons. It is the law of inertia
  (Newtons first law) an object in motion stays in
  motion unless acted on by an outside force and
  ice is nearly frictionless
• b. equal to the weight of the puck. does not
  need a force to keep in motion
• c. the weight of the puck divided by the mass
  of the puck. Does not follow Newtons second law.
• d. the mass of the puck multiplied by the
  weight of the puck. Does not follow Fmg

Answer
14

• A wave is transporting energy from left to right.
  The particles of the medium are moving back and
  forth in a leftward and rightward direction.
  Which type of wave is
• this?
• a. gravitational
• b. electromagnetic
• c. transverse
• d. longitudinal

15

• 7. A wave is transporting energy from left to
  right.
• The particles of the medium are moving back and
• forth in a leftward and rightward direction.
  Which
• type of wave is this?
• a. gravitational This is an example of a
  transverse wave.
• b. electromagnetic A transverse wave that
  does not require a medium.
• c. transverse Particles move up and down as
  energy moves to the right.
• d. longitudinal A longitudinal wave
  particles moves back and forth in a leftward and
  rightward direction parallel to the direction of
  the energy

Answer
16

• 8.Each figure below shows a force measured in
  Newtons pushing on a block. If there are no other
  forces pushing on the block, in which case is the
  acceleration of the block greatest?
• a. c.
• b. d.

17

• 8. Each figure below shows a force measured in
  Newtons pushing on a block. If there are no other
  forces pushing on the block, in which case is the
  acceleration of the block greatest?
• This question relates to Newtons second law of
  motion.
• a. c.
• b. d.

Answer
1 Newton is less than 4 kilograms.
They are equal, they cancel each other so there
would be no movement.
They are equal, they cancel each other so there
would be no movement.
The net force is greater.
18

• 9. A person produces two sound waves with a
  flute, one immediately after the other. Both
  sound waves have the same pitch, but the second
  one is louder. Which of the following properties
  is greater for the second sound wave?
• a. Frequency
• b. Amplitude
• c. Wavelength
• d. Speed in air

19

• 9. A person produces two sound waves with a
  flute, one immediately after the other. Both
  sound waves have the same pitch, but the second
  one is louder. Which of the following properties
  is greater for the second sound wave?
• a. Frequency Relates to pitch not loudness.
• b. Amplitude Loudness relates to amplitude of
  a sound wave.
• c. Wavelength Relates to the distance between
  repeating units.
• d. Speed in air Relates to how much distance a
  wave travels in a given amount of time.

Answer
20

• 10. Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by
• convection. At the equator, air rises at
• the poles it sinks. This occurs because
• a. the Earths ozone layer is thinner at the
• equator than at the poles.
• b. the Earths magnetic field is stronger
• at the poles than at the equator.
• c. warm air can hold less water
• vapor than can cold air.
• d. warm air is less dense than cold air.

21

• Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by
  convection. At the equator, air rises at the
  poles it sinks. This occurs because
• a. the Earths ozone layer is thinner at the
  equator than at the poles.
• This statement is false
• b. the Earths magnetic field is stronger at the
  poles than at the equator.
• Magnetic fields are not related to
  convection.
• c. warm air can hold less water vapor than can
  cold air.
• This statement is false
• d. warm air is less dense than cold air.
• The warmer air expands becoming less dense
  than the cooler air around it. The cooler air,
  which now has greater density, moves toward the
  ground.

22

• 11. Which information indicates that new
  seafloor rock is
• forming along the mid-ocean ridge and then
  moving
• horizontally away from the ridge?
• a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean
  water.
• b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor
  demonstrate
• that the orientation of Earths magnetic
  field has
• remained constant.
• c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at
  high
• elevations.
• d. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the
  distance
• from the mid-ocean ridge increases.

23

• 11. Which information indicates that new seafloor
  rock is forming along the mid-ocean ridge and
  then moving horizontally away from the ridge?
• a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water.
  
• Volcanoes are the results of hot spots in the
  middle of a tectonic plate, or where subduction
  occurs between two tectonic plates.
• b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor
  demonstrate that the orientation of Earths
  magnetic field has remained constant.
• This statement is false. The magnetic field
  goes through a cycle.
• c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at
  high elevations.
• High elevations would be vertical, the
  question asks about horizontal
• d. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the
  distance from the mid-ocean ridge increases.
• As new rock forms along the ridge, it pushes
  the older rock out.

24

• 12. Which of the following determines most
  characteristics and future events of a stars
  existence?
• a. size (diameter)
• b. temperature
• c. color
• d. mass

25

• 12. Which of the following determines most
  characteristics and future events of a stars
  existence?
• a. size (diameter)
• Size does not always relate to mass,
  could have a large diameter, but be less dense.
• b. temperature
• Temperature is related to the age of the
  star.
• c. color
• Color is related to temperature hot
  stars are younger and burn blue cooler, younger
  stars burn red.
• d. mass
• Thermonuclear fusion occurs at a faster
  rate in massive stars, thus large stars use all
  of their fuel in a shorter length of time. The
  mass of a star determines its fate in the life
  cycle of a star.

26

• 13. Which of the following best describes
• the expansion of the universe?
• a. Expansion involves the spreading of
• matter into infinite and empty space.
• b. As space expands, matter spreads out
• to fill up the empty space.
• c. As space expands, the empty space
• between matter increases.
• d. As space expands, matter
• continually is created to fill
• that space.

27

• 13. Which of the following best describes the
• expansion of the universe?
• a. Expansion involves the spreading of matter
• into infinite and empty space.
• Matter is not spreading out.
• b. As space expands, matter spreads out to fill
  
• up the empty space.
• Matter is not spreading out.
• c. As space expands, the empty space between
• matter increases.
• The red shift shows us the distant galaxies
• are moving away from Earth.
• d. As space expands, matter continually is
• created to fill that space.
• Not true due to the Law of Conservation of
• Matter.

28

• 14. Which of the following is the best
  description of
• the Big Bang Theory?
• a. The Big Bang Theory is the scientific
• explanation of how the Sun, Earth and
  the rest
• of the solar system were created at the
• beginning of time.
• b. The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing
• matter was compacted into a hot and dense
  for
• and suddenly exploded into infinite, empty
  space.
• c. The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas
  about
• the universes origin, many of which are
  equally
• respected by the scientific community.
• d. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model
  about
• the universes origin and is supported by
• observations of the universes expansion.

29

• 14. Which of the following is the best
  description of
• the Big Bang Theory?
• a. The Big Bang Theory is the scientific
  explanation of how the Sun, Earth and the rest of
  the solar system were created at the beginning of
  time.
• The Solar System is believed to have formed
  according the Nebular Hypothesis.
• b. The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing
  matter was compacted into a hot and dense for and
  suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.
• Answer D is better because it has supporting
  observations
• c. The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas
  about the universes origin, many of which are
  equally respected by the scientific community.
• False, the Big Bang Theory is the most widely
  accepted.
• d. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model
  about the universes origin and is supported by
  observations of the universes expansion.
• It is the prevailing model, and Edwin Hubble
  found experimental evidence that distant galaxies
  are moving away from Earth as seen with the Red
  Shift.

30

• 15. Earths seasons are the result of
• a. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere
  
• is thicker in the summer and thinner in
  the
• winter.
• b. solar flares, which occur more frequently
  in the
• summer than in the winter.
• c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be
  closer to
• the Sun in the summer and farther in the
  winter.
• d. earths tilt, causing the number of
  daylight
• hours to decrease from summer to winter.

31

• 15. Earths seasons are the result of
• a. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere is
  thicker in the summer and thinner in the winter.
• This would effect climate all year,
  not just seasons.
• b. solar flares, which occur more frequently in
  the summer than in the winter.
• Solar flares do not effect seasons.
• c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be
  closer to the Sun in the summer and farther in
  the winter.
• Earth is actually closer to the sun
  during winter
• d. Earths tilt, causing the number of daylight
  hours to decrease from summer to winter.
• Because of the tilt, the pole that points
  towards the sun experiences summer. This means
  less sunlight gets scattered before reaching the
  ground because it has less distance to travel
  through the atmosphere. In addition, the high
  sun angle produces long days. The pole that
  points away from the sun experiences winter,
  which has shorter days.

32

• 16. Which of the following is (are) important
• concepts(s) in Darwins theory of natural
• selection?
• I. Species do not change over time.
• II. There is variability of characteristics
  within a
• population of organisms.
• III. A single organism can acquire traits over
  their
• lifetimes that are then passed to its
  offspring.
• a. I only
• b. II only
• c. I and II only
• d. II and III only

33

• 16. Which of the following is (are) important
• concepts (s) in Darwins theory of
  natural
• selection?
• I. Species do not change over time.
• Species do change over time.
• II. There is variability of characteristics
  within a
• population of organisms. True
• III. A single organism can acquire traits over
  
• their lifetimes that are then passed to
• its offspring. True
• a. I only Not true.
• b. II only
• True, but so is III.
• c. I and II only
• Statement I is not true.
• d. II and III only
• Both of these statements
• are true.

34

• 17. Which of the following is NOT a structural
• difference between RNA and DNA?
• a. A DNA molecule has two strands, while
• RNA has one strand.
• b. DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA
• contains the base uracil.
• c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in
• RNA it is ribose.
• d. Because of their sizes DNA can leave the
• nucleus and RNA cannot.

35

• 17. Which of the following is NOT a structural
  difference between RNA and DNA?
• a. A DNA molecule has two strands, while RNA
  has one strand.
• True Statement.
• b. DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA
  contains the
• base uracil. True Statement.
• c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in
  RNA it is ribose.
• True Statement.
• d. Because of their sizes DNA can leave the
  nucleus and RNA
• cannot. Due to its size, DNA cannot
  leave the nucleus but
• RNA can.

36

• 18. Which organelle is involved in cellular
• respiration in both animal AND plant
• cells?
• a. Nucleus
• b. Chloroplasts
• c. Mitochondria
• d. Vacuole

37

• 18. Which organelle is involved in cellular
• respiration in both animal AND plant
  cells?
• a. Nucleus Contains DNA and manages the
• cells functions.
• b. Chloroplasts Found in plants only.
• c. Mitochondria Sight of cellular respiration
  in
• both animals and plants.
• d. Vacuole Used to store
• nutrients not for respiration.

38
19. Which of the following characteristics of
rocks can be caused by the slow cooling of magma?

• A large crystals
• B colorful grains
• C smooth cover
• D symmetrical shape

39
19. Which of the following characteristics of
rocks can be caused by the slow cooling of magma?
A. large crystals - Slow cooling allows the
crystals to form more completely before
solidifying.
Not B. colorful grains - Many rocks have
colorful grains, but the color is a function of
the elements included.
Not C. smooth cover - Smoothness is common, but
it is a product of weathering and/or crystal
shape.
Not D. symmetrical shape - Symmetry, like other
traits, is mostly the produce of the type of
minerals in the rock.
40
20. A law is an explanation of scientific
phenomenon that is

• largely accepted by scientists.
• based on observations.
• supported by most scientific data.
• proven and is without exception.

41
20. A law is an explanation of scientific
phenomenon that is
Not A. Laws are completely accepted as fact.
Not B. Laws are based on mathematical proof, not
observations.
Not C. The option allows for some data that is
not supported.
D. Option D completes the definition of a law.
42
21. After data is gathered from an experiment,
doing which of these will most help make results
more reliable?

• asking the teacher to check data
• changing the variables for another experiment
  
• repeating the experiment for additional data
• reporting the information on a table

43
21. After data is gathered from an experiment,
doing which of these will most help make results
more reliable?
Not A. The teacher will have nothing to add to
the validity to the numbers.
Not B. Changing variables compromises the data.
C. Reliability is dependant on repeatability.
Not D. Presentation of the report does not affect
reliability.
44
22. Light is best refracted by

• mirrors
• wood
• glass
• metal

45
22. Light is best refracted by
Not A. Mirrors typically reflect, not refract,
light.
Not B. Wood is opaque therefore, it cannot
refract light.
C. Glass is a medium with a different density
than air. Glass is translucent enough to have
light pass through.
Not D. Metal is opaque therefore, it cannot
refract light.
46
23. Chemical reaction rates can most effectively
be increased by

• decreasing reactant particle size
• increasing volume of the container
• decreasing temperature
• increasing the number of reactants

47
23. Chemical reaction rates can most effectively
be increase by
A. Decreasing particle size increases the surface
area expose for reaction.
Not B. Increasing volume may cause reactants to
collide less frequently and slow rate of
reaction.
Not C. Decreasing temperature reduces the rate of
particle collision.
Not D. Adding reactants may cause competitive
inhibition of reaction, decreasing the reaction
rate.
48
24. Which of these items can be best used as in
inclined plane?

• wheelbarrow
• tennis racquet
• door knob
• staircase

49
24. Which of these items can be best used as in
inclined plane?
Not A. The handles work as a lever and the wheel
and axle helps with movement.
Not B. The tennis racquet adds mechanical
advantage because of increased centripetal force.
It is impractical to use a racquet as an inclined
plane.
Not C. The doorknob has a wheel and axle element
with the locking mechanism. The knob itself acts
as a lever.
D. The staircase can be used to move objects
vertically.
50
25. A mutation in which of these types of cells
will affect offspring characteristics?

• skin
• lung
• gland
• gamete

51
25. A mutation in which of these types of cells
will affect offspring characteristics?
Not A. Mutation to skin cells may cause
discoloration or cancer, but it will not affect
fertility or offspring characteristics.
Not B. Mutation in lung cells may cause cancer
or other dysfunction of the lung, but it will not
affect offspring.
Not C. Mutation to glands will affect hormonal
and overall chemical balance, but it will not
affect offspring.
D. Since gametes are the cells that unite to form
zygotes, changes to them will affect gene
expression in offspring.
52
26. Which of these molecules is most important
for the production of ATP?

• glucose
• salt
• lipid
• peroxide

53
26. Which of these molecules is most important
for the production of ATP?
A. Before ATP can be made during the Krebs Cycle,
glucose is converted pyruvate.
Not B. Salt is important for water balance in
cells, but it is not involved in ATP production.
Not C. Lipid molecules can be converted into
usable energy forms, but all materials need to be
converted to glucose before glycolysis can occur.
Not D. Peroxide is not involved in ATP
production.
54
27. Bone is to chicken as cartilage is to

• shark
• wolf
• clam
• worm

55
27. Bone is to chicken as cartilage is to
A. The analogy has to do with skeletal system in
the animal. Chickens have bones and sharks have a
cartilaginous skeleton. Even though this item is
relatively simple, it requires the student to
recognize the relationship in the analogy and how
to properly complete it.
Not B. Wolves, like chickens, also have a bony
skeleton.
Not C. Clams have an exoskeleton.
Not D. Worms do not have a skeletal system.
56
28. The forces that form folded mountains are
considered to be constructive because of the
forces caused

• irregular shaping of a landform.
• other landforms to move closer together.
• a new landform.
• a climate change because of the land form.

57
28. The forces that form folded mountains are
considered to be constructive because of the
forces caused
Not A. Irregular shaping is caused by weathering
and erosion.
Not B. Landforms do not move closer to each
other as a result of constructive forces.
C. The stem and option C paraphrase the
definition of a constructive force.
Not D. Lithosphere activity may cause changes to
area climate, but it is not part of the
definition of constructive forces.
58
29. The best method for determining how long ago
organisms lived is

• calculate the fossils density.
• compare fossil appearance to modern organisms.
• measure how deep fossils are buried.
• use radiocarbon dating on fossils..

59
29. The best method for determining how long ago
organisms lived is
Not A. Calculating density will provide a number,
but give no information regarding age.
Not B. Comparing appearance can give
evolutionary clues, but it will not provide
quantity of years. Many surviving animals look
very pre-historic.
Not C. Measuring depth can give insight to
relative age, but it is not a quantifiable
measurement. Depth is also dependent on Earths
movements.
D. Radiocarbon dating will give a measurement
based on decomposition of carbon atoms. This is
the most accurate method used.
60
30. Radium, a radioactive element, decays over
time. How much would remain of 20 grams of
radium after two half-lives have passed?

• 0 grams
• 5 grams
• 7 grams
• 10 grams

61
Half-life decay Period of time a radioactive
substance decays
½ is gone each half-life
NOT A. A small amount of
radioactivity would still be left after 10
half-lives

• 5 grams is correct
• SO..one half-life leaves 10 grams
• a second half-life leaves 5 grams

NOT C. 7 grams would be left between one
and two half-lives
NOT D. 10 grams would be left after one
half-life
62

• 31. Emily and Sarah observed that the goldfish
  in their classroom breathed more frequently when
  the room was warm. What equipment would the girls
  need to conduct an experiment that would verify
  their observations?
• A. balance, beakers, thermometers
• B. thermometers, stopwatch, notebook
• C. stopwatch, thermometer, balance
• D. balance, stopwatch, notebook

63

• 31. Emily and Sarah observed that the goldfish
  in their classroom breathed more frequently when
  the room was warm. What equipment would the girls
  need to conduct an experiment that would verify
  their observations?
• balance, beakers, thermometers
• Incorrect. This experiment does not need a
  balance. Balances measure mass and that is not
  required for this experiment.
• B. thermometers, stopwatch, notebook
• Correct. The students need a thermometer to
  measure the water temperature, a stopwatch to
  time the breathing frequency, and a notebook to
  record their data.
• C. stopwatch, thermometer, balance
• Incorrect. Do not need a balance.
• D. balance, stopwatch, notebook
• Incorrect. Do not need a balance.

64

• 32. One characteristic of all living things is
  that they
• A. have eyes.
• B. have legs.
• C. inhale and exhale.
• D. eliminate waste products.

65

• 32. One characteristic of all living things is
  that they
• have eyes.
• Incorrect. Not all living organisms have eyes
  for example bacteria and fungi
• B. have legs.
• Incorrect. Not all living organisms have legs
  for example protists and plants
• C. inhale and exhale.
• Incorrect. Not all living organisms have the
  ability to inhale and exhale like fish with gills
  or bacteria
• D. eliminate waste products.
• Correct. All living organisms must eliminate
  waste to avoid toxicity

66

• 33. Earth has seasons because of
• A. Earths tilt on its axis.
• B. Earths distance from the sun.
• C. the moons gravitational pull.
• D. the suns temperature changes.

67

• 33. Earth has seasons because of
• Earths tilt on its axis.
• Correct.
• B. Earths distance from the sun.
• Partially correct. The Earths distance from
  the sun effects the earths climate. Answer A is
  the best choice.
• C. the moons gravitational pull.
• Incorrect. Affects the rise and fall of the
  ocean tides.
• D. the suns temperature changes.
• Incorrect. The suns temperature is fairly
  constant.

68

• 34. The producer in the food web shown above is
  the
• A. grass.
• B. mouse.
• C. mountain lion.
• D. owl.

69

• 34. The producer in the food web shown above is
  the
• grass.
• Correct. Autotrophic organism, such as a plant,
  capture light energy to make organic molecules.
• B. mouse.
• Incorrect. Consumer, heterotrophic organism
  that must consume other organisms to gain
  nutrients.
• C. mountain lion.
• Incorrect. Consumer
• D. owl.
• Incorrect. Consumer

70

• 35. The long necks of a giraffe may best be
  explained by
• A. giraffes constantly stretching their necks
  over time.
• B. short-necked giraffes were less able to
  compete for food.
• C. the theory of the use and disuse of organs.
• D. the extinction of other long-necked animals
  due to climate change.

71

• 35. The long necks of a giraffe may best be
  explained by
• giraffes constantly stretching their necks over
  time.
• Incorrect. This would not affect the giraffes
  DNA, therefore could not be passed on to the
  offspring. (Lamarcks theory that was disproved)
• B. short-necked giraffes were less able to
  compete for food.
• Correct. Short necked giraffes died off and
  long necked giraffes survived and left more
  offspring.
• C. the theory of the use and disuse of organs.
• Incorrect. Lamarcks Theory that was disproved.
• D. the extinction of other long-necked animals
  due to climate change.
• Might be possible if the other animals competed
  for the same food but B is a better explanation

72

• 36. Which BEST explains why a lake is frozen on
  the surface but not below the surface?
• A. Ice floats.
• B. Water freezes at 0 C.
• C. Ice lets light through the water.
• D. Water is clear.

73

• 36. Which BEST explains why a lake is frozen on
  the surface but not below the surface?
• A. Ice floats.
• Correct. As the air temperature cools the water
  it freezes. Ice is less dense than water if it is
  frozen.
• B. Water freezes at 0 C.
• Incorrect. Water does freeze at this
  temperature, but it doesnt explain why it is
  frozen on the surface and not below.
• C. Ice lets light through the water.
• Incorrect. Ice can let light through, but it
  doesnt explain why it is frozen on the surface
  and not below.
• D. Water is clear.
• Incorrect. Water is clear, but that has no
  effect on water freezing.

74

• 37. How does the heat inside Earths core affect
  what happens on Earths surface?
• A. The heat warms Earths crust in the worlds
  desert and tropical regions.
• B. The heat causes convection currents in Earths
  mantle which move the tectonic plates.
• C. The heat from the core sets up wind patterns
  in Earths lower atmosphere.
• D. The heat is slowly melting the glaciers found
  around the North and South Poles of Earth.

75

• 37. How does the heat inside Earths core affect
  what happens on Earths surface?
• A. The heat warms Earths crust in the worlds
  desert and tropical regions.
• Incorrect. The amount of sunlight and local
  conditions create deserts and tropical regions.
• B. The heat causes convection currents in Earths
  mantle which move the tectonic plates.
• Correct. Heat from the core melts the material
  in the mantle causing it to flow like a liquid
  and creating convection currents. The tectonic
  plates float on top of the mantle and are
  therefore moved by the motion of the mantle
  below.
• C. The heat from the core sets up wind patterns
  in Earths lower atmosphere.
• Incorrect. The amount of sunlight, local
  conditions, and the Coriollis affect, create wind
  patterns in Earths lower atmosphere
• D. The heat is slowly melting the glaciers found
  around the North and South Poles of Earth.
• Incorrect. The atmospheric temperature changes
  affect the formation and melting of glaciers.

76

• 38. What process is represented by the bracketed
  section B shown above?
• A. cell duplication
• B. asexual reproduction
• C. sex cell formation
• D. egg fertilization

77

• 38. What process is represented by the bracketed
  section B shown above
• cell duplication
• Incorrect. Each cell is different than the
  originating cell.
• B. asexual reproduction
• Incorrect. The final cell represents a union of
  two cells genetic material, not a division of
  cells.
• C. sex cell formation
• Incorrect. Only the first step in section B
  represents gamete formation, but the second step
  represents fusion of two of these gametes.
• D. egg fertilization
• Correct. Section B is showing the fusion of
  gametes to form a zygote with twice the genetic
  material of the originating cells.

78
39. The graphic above shows the phase of water
at any given temperature and pressure. If the
pressure of a sample of water is at a temperature
T and is raised from pressure P1 to P2, the water
will change from

• Gas to liquid
• Liquid to gas
• Solid to liquid
• Liquid to solid

79
39. The graphic above shows the phase of water
at any given temperature and pressure. If the
pressure of a sample of water is at a temperature
T and is raised from pressure P1 to P2, the water
will change from

• Gas to liquid is the correct answer because at
  temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas when
  you move to pressure P2 it changes to liquid.
• Liquid to gas is incorrect because at temperature
  T and pressure P1 water is a gas not a liquid.
• Solid to liquid is incorrect because at
  temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas not
  a solid.
• Liquid to gas is incorrect because at temperature
  T and pressure P1 water is a gas not a liquid.

80
40. Why does the moon only have 1/6 of Earths
gravity?

• It is very far away from Earth
• It has no atmosphere.
• It has less mass than Earth.
• It is made of basalt.

81
40. Why does the moon only have 1/6 of Earths
gravity?

• Incorrect. The moon is actually the closest
  astronomical object to our planet.
• Incorrect. The moon has no atmosphere so there
  is no weather but that doesnt affect gravity.
• Correct. The moon has less mass therefore is
  also has less gravity.
• Incorrect. The moon is made of basalt but that
  doesnt affect the gravity.

82
41. The graphic below shows a test tube
containing sodium carbonate resting in a flask
containing vinegar (acetic acid in water). The
flask is sealed with a balloon and weighed. The
flask is then tipped so that the sodium carbonate
in the test tube reacts with the vinegar. The
flask is weighed a second time. Which statement
best expresses the relationship between the two
weights?

• The first weight will be greater.
• The second weight will be greater.
• The two weights will be the same.
• The relationship between the weights is not
  predictable.

83
41. Which statement best expresses the
relationship between the two weights?

• The first weight will be greater. Incorrect. Does
  not follow the Law of Conservation of Mass.
• The second weight will be greater. Incorrect.
  Does not follow the Law of Conservation of Mass.
• The two weights will be the same. Correct. The
  mass of a closed system will remain constant,
  regardless of the processes acting inside the
  system. In addition, matter cannot be created or
  destroyed, although it may be rearranged.
• The relationship between the weights is not
  predictable. Incorrect. Does not follow the Law
  of Conservation of mass.

84
A year on Jupiter is 4,344 days long. This tells
you how long it takes

• Jupiter to orbit the sun.
• Jupiter to rotate one time on its axis.
• the sun to orbit Jupiter.
• D. Earth to orbit Jupiter.

85
A year on Jupiter is 4,344 days long. This tells
you how long it takes

• Jupiter to orbit the sun. Correct
• Jupiter to rotate one time on its axis.
  Incorrect. This would be 1 day.
• The sun to orbit Jupiter. Incorrect. Jupiter
  orbits the sun the sun does not orbit Jupiter.
• Earth to orbit Jupiter. Incorrect. The Earth does
  not Orbit Jupiter.

86
All stars, including our sun, give off heat and
light. Which is the best explanation for why we
do not feel the heat from other stars?

• The other stars are smaller than the sun.
• The other stars are much farther away than the
  sun.
• The other stars are not as bright as the sun.
• The other stars are not as hot as the sun.

87
All stars, including our sun, give off heat and
light. Which is the best explanation for why we
do not feel the heat from other stars?

• The other stars are smaller than the sun.
  Incorrect. Other stars can be bigger or smaller
  than the sun.
• The other stars are much farther away than the
  sun. Correct.
• The other stars are not as bright as the sun.
  Incorrect. Other stars brightness can be lesser
  or greater than the sun.
• The other stars are not as hot as the
  sun.Incorrect. Other stars can have a
  temperature that is lesser or greater than the
  sun.

88
The graph on the next slide shows the
relationship between an islands size (in
hectares) and the number of plant and animal
species on the island. What can be concluded from
this graph?

• There is no relationship between an islands size
  and its biodiversity
• Flamingo Island has more diversity of plant and
  animal species than Blue Island.
• Island of the Wind has greater numbers of plant
  and animal species because it is protected by the
  two larger islands.
• As an islands size increases, the numbers of
  plant and animal species on the island increase.

89
Graph 44
See Answer
Return to Question
90
What can be concluded from this graph?

• There is no relationship between an islands size
  and its biodiversity. Incorrect. There would be
  a horizontal line or no pattern at all. As the
  size increases so does the number of species.
• Flamingo Island has more diversity of plant and
  animal species than Blue Island. Incorrect. Blue
  island is higher on the graph, therefore has more
  species.
• Island of the Wind has greater numbers of plant
  and animal species because it is protected by the
  two larger islands. Incorrect. It has the fewest
  number of species and a map would be needed to
  determine if there were larger islands
  surrounding it.
• As an islands size increases, the numbers of
  plant and animal species on the island increase.
  Correct

91
When you use the brakes on your bike to stop, the
energy of the bikes motion is converted into
A. heat energy.B. electromagnetic energy.C.
potential energy.D. kinetic energy.
92
When you use the brakes on your bike to stop, the
energy of the bikes motion is converted into

• heat energy. Correct. The friction that occurs
  produces heat.
• electromagnetic energy. Incorrect. This involves
  wave energy, not mechanical energy.
• potential energy.Incorrect. The potential
  energy is building, but the kinetic energy is not
  converting to potential energy.
• kinetic energy. Incorrect. Kinetic energy is
  being lost as the bike slows down.

93
Green plants can reduce greenhouse gases by

• producing oxygen as a byproduct of
  photosynthesis.
• B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
  during the process of photosynthesis.
• C. absorbing sunlight in the plants chlorophyll
  molecules.
• D. providing shade and moisture to cool the air
  in the lower part of the atmosphere.

94
Green plants can reduce greenhouse gases by

• producing oxygen as a byproduct of
  photosynthesis. Incorrect. Oxygen is not a
  greenhouse causing gas.
• B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
  during the process of photosynthesis. Correct
• C. absorbing sunlight in the plants chlorophyll
  molecules. Incorrect. This does not reduce
  greenhouse gas.
• D. providing shade and moisture to cool the air
  in the lower part of the atmosphere. Incorrect.
  This does not reduce greenhouse gas.

95
47. A biotic factor that might be studied in an
ecosystem is the

• size of soil particles.
• percent of soil moisture.
• rate of algae growth.
• pH of lake water.

96
47. A biotic factor that might be studied in an
ecosystem is the

• size of soil particles. Incorrect. Soil is
  abiotic (was never living). Incorrect. Soil is
  abiotic (was never living).
• percent of soil moisture. Incorrect. Soil is
  abiotic (was never living). Incorrect. Soil is
  abiotic (was never living).
• rate of algae growth. Correct. A biotic factor
  is something that is alive or was once alive.
  Correct. A biotic factor is something that is
  alive or was once alive.
• pH of lake water. Incorrect. Water is abiotic
  (was never living). Incorrect. Water is abiotic
  (was never living).

97
48. In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the
reactants equals the total mass of the products.
In a nuclear reaction, the total mass of the
reactants does not equal the total mass of the
products. What is the MOST likely explanation for
the change of mass in the nuclear reaction?

• The mass was measured inaccurately.
• Some energy is converted into mass.
• Some mass is converted into energy.
• There was no increase in mass.

98
48. In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the
reactants equals the total mass of the products.
In a nuclear reaction, the total mass of the
reactants does not equal the total mass of the
products. What is the MOST likely explanation for
the change of mass in the nuclear reaction?

• The mass was measured inaccurately. Incorrect.
  The question states that mass should be lost.
• Some energy is converted into mass. Incorrect.
  In nuclear reactions energy is a product.
• Some mass is converted into energy. Correct
• There was no increase in mass. Incorrect. The
  question states that the mass changes.

99
49. Which are three examples physical changes?

• water freezing, gasoline, evaporating, a nail
  rusting.

B. water boiling, a balloon bursting, a candle
melting.

• D. gasoline burning, an egg rotting, fireworks
  exploding.

100
49. Which are three examples physical changes?

• water freezing, gasoline, evaporating, a nail
  rusting Incorrect. Chemical change.

B. water boiling, a balloon bursting, a candle
melting Correct. Physical change.

• D. gasoline burning, an egg rotting, fireworks
  exploding Incorrect. Chemical change.

C. wood burning, a marshmallow melting, a paper
tearing Incorrect. Chemical change.
101
50. A farmer observes that a crop of his
strawberries produces different types of fruit.
One variety is small but very juicy. Another
variety is very large but lacks of flavor and
juice. You have been asked to give the farmer
advice about growing large, juicy strawberries.
Which would be best advice?

• He should continue to grow his strawberries the
  same way because his crop has a good variety of
  fruit.
• He should select the large plants only because
  consumers like the large fruit.
• He should select several of each plant and cross
  them to see if he can produce strawberries that
  are both juicy and large.
• Selective breeding causes strawberries to get
  more diseases, so he should buy new plants.

102
50. Which would be best advice?

• He should continue to grow his strawberries the
  same way because his crop has a good variety of
  fruit. Incorrect. He will continue to get the
  same crop.
• He should select the large plants only because
  consumers like the large fruit. Incorrect. This
  will not produce juicy fruit.
• He should select several of each plant and cross
  them to see if he can produce strawberries that
  are both juicy and large. Correct
• Selective breeding causes strawberries to get
  more diseases, so he should buy new plants.
  Incorrect. Breeding diverse plants should cause
  less disease.

103

• 51. A tree grows from a tiny seed into a huge,
  200-foot tall redwood. Most of the redwood trees
  structural mass came from
• minerals in the soil.
• carbon dioxide in the air.
• oxygen in the air.
• nitrogen in the soil.

104

• 51. A tree grows from a tiny seed into a huge,
  200-foot tall redwood. Most of the redwood trees
  structural mass came from
• minerals in the soil. Incorrect. Minerals are
  trace elements and contribute to the maintaining
  the plants health.
• carbon dioxide in the air. Correct. Carbon
  dioxide is needed for photosynthesis the method
  the plants create nutrients.
• oxygen in the air. Incorrect. Oxygen is given
  off by plants.
• nitrogen in the soil. Incorrect. Nitrogen is
  used to make proteins.

105
52. The graphic above represents change in a
population over time. The capacity (K) is the
number of individuals that can be supported in
the system. Point A indicates that this
population has exceeded K. What negative impact
may be anticipated?

• depletion or degradation of resources
• underutilization of alternative resources
• increased rate of mutations
• increased population growth

106
52. What negative impact may be anticipated?

• depletion or degradation of resources Correct.
  All the food is consumed before more can be made.
• underutilization of alternative resources
  Incorrect. This is not a negative impact
  alternative resources would be a part of K.
• increased rate of mutations Incorrect.
  Mutations could be positive a large population
  should have an increase in mutations.
• increased population growth Incorrect.
  Population cannot increase because the resources
  would be used up quicker.

107
53. The burning of fossil fuels may contribute to
all of the following EXCEPT

• global warming
• acid rain.
• the Coriolis effect
• pollution.

108
53. The burning of fossil fuels may contribute to
all of the following EXCEPT

• global warming. Incorrect. It produces
  greenhouse gas which contributes to global
  warming.
• acid rain. Incorrect. Sulfur dioxide is
  produced by fossil fuel burning and can cause
  acid rain.
• the Coriolis effect Correct. This is caused by
  the velocity of a moving object, not fossil
  fuels.
• pollution. Incorrect. It causes several types
  of pollution.

109
54. Which equation is not consistent with the law
of conservation of mass?

• S O2 ? SO2
• KClO3 ? KCl O2
• CaCO3 ? CaO CO2
• Ca S ? CaS

110
54. Which equation is not consistent with the law
of conservation of mass?

• S O2 ? SO2 Incorrect. This is a balanced
  equation.
• KClO3 ? KCl O2 Correct. This equation does
  not have the same amount of elements on each
  side. The equation is not balanced.
• CaCO3 ? CaO CO2 Incorrect. This is a balanced
  equation.
• Ca S ? CaS Incorrect. This is a balanced
  equation.

111
55. The extinction of a species

• is a natural event experienced by most species.
• will never happen in a saltwater environment.
• cannot occur if a very small gene pool is
  present.
• is almost always caused by human activity.

112
55. The extinction of a species
a. is a natural event experienced by most
species. Correct b. will never happen in a
saltwater environment. Incorrect. There are
ocean organisms that have gone extinct. c. cannot
occur if a very small gene pool is present.
Incorrect. More likely to occur in a small gene
pool, due to lack of diversity. d. is almost
always caused by human activity. Incorrect.
Organisms have gone extinct before human activity.
113
56. A student has written the following
hypothesis As more salt is added to a container
of ice, the temperature of the mixture will
become lower. What are two factors that need to
be kept constant to test this hypothesis?

• amount of salt and amount of ice
• type of salt and amount of ice
• size of container and amount of time
• air temperature and amount of time

114
56. What are two factors that need to be kept
constant to test this hypothesis?

• amount of salt and amount of ice Incorrect.
  Salt needs to be added during the experiment,
  therefore the amount will increase.
• type of salt and amount of ice Correct
• size of container and amount of time Incorrect.
  Time is not a factor because the experiment is
  not measuring the rate of time, just temperature
  differences.
• air temperature and amount of timeIncorrect.
  Time is not a factor because the experiment is
  not measuring the rate of time, just temperature
  differences.

115
57. A person is standing on a mountain somewhere
on Earth. What is the relationship of the
persons mass and weight on the top of the
mountain versus at sea level?

• Mass is the same on top of the mountain and at
  sea level, and weight is slightly less on the
  mountaintop.
• B. Weight is the same at both locations and mass
  is slightly less on the mountain top.
• C. Weight and mass are the same on top of the
  mountain and at sea level.
• D. Mass is the same at both locations, and weight
  is slightly higher on the mountaintop.

116
57. A person is standing on a mountain somewhere
on Earth. What is the relationship of the
persons mass and weight on the top of the
mountain versus at sea level?
A. Mass is the same on top of the mountain and at
sea level, and weight is slightly less on the
mountaintop. Correct B. Weight is the same at
both locations and mass is slightly less on the
mountain top. Incorrect. The mass does not
change. C. Weight and mass are the same on top of
the mountain and at sea level. Incorrect.
Weight and mass are not the same measurement. D.
Mass is the same at both locations, and weight is
slightly higher on the mountaintop. Incorrect.
Gravity decreases farther from the core,
therefore weight would be less on the mountain
top.
117
58. Fossils of the Glossopteris, an extinct plant
that lived 250 million years ago, have been found
in South Africa, Australia, India, and
Antarctica. The seeds of the Glossopteris were
too large to be carried by wind and too fragile
to have been carried by water therefore, the
seeds could not have naturally crossed the water
that separates the continents today. How do
scientists today explain the occurrence of
Glossopteris fossils on all four continents?

• Land bridges once connected all the continents.
• Man carried the seeds in boats from continent to
  continent.
• he continents were once all part of the same land
  mass.
• A tsunami carried the seeds to new locations.

118
58. How do scientists today explain the
occurrence of Glossopteris fossils on all four
continents?

• Land bridges once connected all the continents.
  Incorrect. Seeds cannot walk across a land
  bridge.
• Man carried the seeds in boats from continent to
  continent. Incorrect. Man was not around 250
  million years ago.
• The continents were once all part of the same
  land mass. Correct
• A tsunami carried the seeds to new locations.
  Incorrect. Tsunami is water and the seeds are to
  fragile to have been carried by water.

119
59. A rollerblader is blading along the sidewalk.
Which forms of measurement would be the BEST to
use to determine the rollerbladers speed?

• time and distance
• volume and time
• density and mass
• mass and distance

120
59. A rollerblader is blading along the sidewalk.
Which forms of measurement would be the BEST to
use to determine the rollerbladers speed?

• time and distance Correct. Speed is a
  measurement of time and distance.
• volume and time Incorrect. Volume measures
  space.
• density and mass Incorrect. Density and mass
  measure volume.
• mass and distance Incorrect. Mass is not needed
  to determine speed.

121
60. If you get the mumps when you are young, you
are not likely to get the disease again. One
reason for this is that

• the mumps virus cannot enter your body a second
  time.
• the medicine you took for mumps is stored in your
  body.
• the mumps virus is not as harmful when you are
  older.
• your body has formed antibodies against the mumps
  virus.

122
60. If you get the mumps when you are young, you
are not likely to get the disease again. One
reason for this is that

• the mumps virus cannot enter your body a second
  time. Incorrect. It can enter your body more
  than once.
• the medicine you took for mumps is stored in your
  body. Incorrect. There is not medicine for the
  mumps, its a virus.
• the mumps virus is not as harmful when you are
  older. Incorrect. It is harmful to adults as
  well as children.
• your body has formed antibodies against the mumps
  virus. Correct