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Comparing APV, FTE, and WACC continued from lecture 4

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( otherwise we could use firm beta) ... Failing to releverage asset betas. Failing to include taxes in unleveraging and leveraging betas. ... – PowerPoint PPT presentation

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Title: Comparing APV, FTE, and WACC continued from lecture 4


1
Comparing APV, FTE, and WACC (continued from
lecture 4)
  • The APV approach
  • The FTE approach
  • The WACC approach

2
What cash flows to use?
  • Both APV and WACC use unlevered after tax cash
    flows EBIT(1-Tc), i.e. NOT actual after tax cash
    flows (EBIT-i)(1-Tc)i !!!
  • Thats why in WACC the cost of debt for the firm
    is kd(1-Tc)
  • For the shareholders paying i out of EBIT and
    then being taxed is the same as simply paying
    i(1-Tc) out of EBIT(1-Tc) they get
    (EBIT-i)(1-Tc) anyway.

3
What are the discount rates?
  • For APV use the cost of equity for the unlevered
    firm r0.
  • For FTE and WACC use the cost of equity for the
    levered firm rS.

4
Which capital structure?
  • Always use target weights in WACC.
  • When computing weights in WACC and B/S for rs use
    market values market values are closer to actual
    amounts of money that can be raised by issuing
    securities.
  • Ideally, the resulting capital structure (in
    terms of market values) should coincide with the
    target.
  • If you choose an arbitrary B/S mix as a target,
    compute WACC based on it, calculate the projects
    PV and then calculate the actual B/S in market
    values it may be the same as the initial target!
  • Example at the previous lecture (WACC for
    Pearson). The assumed target ratio was 1.5, but
    the actual one turned out to be 600/406.68
  • (Here 406.68 is the market value of equity PV
    Debt 106.68 600)

5
Which method is better?
  • In theory they are equivalent (at least for the
    case when debt is perpetuity)
  • In practice
  • Use WACC and FTE when you target the constant
    debt ratio. Otherwise computations become
    complex.
  • Use APV when the level of debt is supposed to be
    constant. APV does not care about B/S, it only
    cares about the PV of Tax Shield.
  • In the real world, WACC is the most widely used

6
Determining rs. Pure play technique
  • We know that
  • What if we dont know r0? We can use
  • But how to determine ?S if the project has a risk
    different from the one of the firm? (otherwise we
    could use firm beta)
  • Answer look at a firm whose whole business is
    similar to your project (pure-play firm).

7
  • The problem pure-play firm may have a leverage
    that differs from your project
  • Solution unlever the pure-play firm, calculate
    its beta and then relever it with your
    projects leverage.

In a world with corporate taxes, and riskless
debt, it can be shown that the relationship
between the beta of the unlevered firm and the
beta of levered equity is
8
Applying the Pure-Play Technique -Time Warners
Cable Division
  • Pure-Play Equity or
    Debt To Debt To
  • Firm Market Beta MV
    of Capital MV of Equity
  • Cablevision Systems 1.20 68.2
    214.5
  • Century 1.01
    64.8 184.1
  • Comcast 1.18
    48.5 94.8
  • Jones Intercable 1.07
    60.7 154.5
  • TCI Group 1.17
    50.0 100.0

9
  • Unlevered beta ?U ?L /1 (1 - TC) B/S

Pure-Play Equity or Debt
To Debt To Asset or Firm
Market Beta Capital
Equity Unlevered
Beta Cablevision Systems
1.20 68.2 214.5
0.501 Century 1.01
64.8 184.1 0.460 Comcast
1.18 48.5
94.8 0.730 Jones Intercable
1.07 60.7 154.5
0.534 TCI Group 1.17
50.0 100.0 0.705
Average Asset
Beta 0.586
10
Releveraging Asset Betas - Time Warners Cable
Division
- values for your project
Calculating the Cost of Equity - Time Warners
Cable Division
11
Common Errors in Calculating the WACC Using the
CAPM
  • Using different capital structure assumptions in
    computing the cost of equity than are used in
    calculating the WACC.
  • Using a different maturity for the risk-free rate
    in the CAPM than the one used in calculating the
    market risk premium.
  • Estimating the market risk premium based on the
    most recent returns rather than a long-term time
    series.

12
  • Using the historical average T-bond or T-bill
    rate instead of the current rate.
  • Failing to releverage asset betas.
  • Failing to include taxes in unleveraging and
    leveraging betas.
  • Using the historical market return instead of the
    market risk premium.

13
Other ways to deal with uncertainty
  • Sensitivity analysis
  • How sensitive NPV is to changes in parameters
  • Identifies the most important variables that can
    alter NPV in a drastic way
  • Scenario analysis identifies the most important
    scenarios (i.e. combinations of variables
    values) rather than considering each variable
    separately

14
  • Traditional simulation
  • Estimate the probability distributions of the
    variables that affect cash flows.
  • Simulate NPV to get a distribution of NPV.
  • To calculate NPV for each realization of cash
    flows discount at the risk-free rate.
  • Problem what is the meaning of the resulting
    distribution? Shall we accept or reject the
    project?
  • Decision trees
  • Allows to account for managerial flexibility!
  • But the problem at what rate to discount???

15
Failure of traditional capital budgeting
  • Option to defer investment
  • The manager has an option to defer undertaking a
    project (building a plant) for a year.
  • If he chooses to defer, after a year he either
    may or may not find it profitable to build a
    plant
  • What is the value of this flexibility?

16
Setup
  • At t 0 investment outlay (required inv-t) I0
    104
  • At t 1
  • If the market moves up (prob. q) the project
    generates V 180
  • If the market moves down (prob. 1-q) the project
    generates V 60
  • The manager has a choice
  • To invest at t 0 and get 180 with prob. q and
    60 with prob 1-q, or
  • To wait until t 1 and build a plant only in the
    good state of nature (i.e. if the market has
    moved up). But then the required investment is I1
    112.32. Thus, then he gets
  • E 180 I1 67.68 in the good state
  • E 0 in the bad state.

17
  • Assume q 1/2
  • Risk free rate r 8
  • There exist a risky security (twin security),
    which payoffs are perfectly correlated with the
    payoffs of the project.
  • Payoffs S 36, S 12
  • Price S 20
  • ? rate of return k (½ S ½ S)/S 20
  • How much a manager would pay for this investment
    opportunity (what is the value of the project)?

18
No flexibility case
  • Assume theres no option to defer
  • The traditional DCF technique yields
  • V0 (qV (1-q)V-)/(1k) (0.5180
    0.5160)/(1 0.2) 100
  • NPVpassive V0 - I0 100 104 - 4
  • Reject the project!

19
When the option to defer is present
  • Consider a strategy
  • Buying N shares of the twin security S, partly
    financed by borrowing of amount B at the riskless
    rate r 8
  • We can always pick such N and B that
  • E NS - (1r)B
  • E- NS- - (1r)B
  • Thus, we can replicate the payoffs from the
    project with this portfolio ? the arbitrage
    argument tells us that the project value must be
    the same as the price of the portfolio E0 NS -
    B

20
  • N (E - E-)/(S - S-)
  • B (NS- E-)/(1r)
  • We obtain the risk-neutral valuation!
  • E0 NS B (pE (1-p)E-)/(1r)
  • where p ((1 r)S S-)/(S - S-)
  • Notice q does not enter the expression for E0!
    Why? Because q is already incorporated in the
    price of the twin security S.
  • pE (1-p)E- can be viewed as Certainty
    Equivalent of the random payoff at t 1.

21
  • For our project
  • p 0.4, E0 25.07
  • The value of the option
  • E0 NPVpassive 25.07 (-4) 29.07
  • What if we use traditional capital budgeting,
    i.e. the actual probabilities q and the rate of
    return on the twin security k 20 to discount
    cash flows?
  • E0 (qE (1-q)E-)/(1k) 28.20 gt 25.07
  • Overestimation! One should not pay more than
    25.07 for this option!
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