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Hematology/Oncology

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Title: Hematology/Oncology


1
Hematology/Oncology
  • AOA USMLE Step 1 Review
  • Ashley Smith

2
Outline
  • RBC Questions
  • Platelet Abnormalities
  • WBC Questions
  • Oncology Questions
  • Extra time for your Questions

3
RBC1
  • An otherwise healthy Kenyan man is prescribed
    trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract
    infection. She presents to the emergency
    department with jaundice, fatigue, and confusion.
    Which of the following might you see in the RBCs
    of a peripheral smear?A. Heinz bodiesB.
    Howell-Jolly bodiesC. Basophilic stipplingD.
    Auer rodsE. Reed-Sternberg cells

4
Answer
  • A is the correct answer G6PD deficiency is often
    asymptomatic until faced with an oxidative
    challenge, such as the drug TMP-SMX. It usually
    occurs in people of central African,
    Middle-Eastern, or Western Asian origin. The
    classic finding in RBCs is Heinz bodies (Answer
    A), which are collections of denatured
    hemoglobin. Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear
    remnants in RBCs that remain due to failure of
    splenic sequestration in Sickle-cell disease.
    Basophilic stippling represents RNA collections
    that are most classically associated with lead
    poisoning. Auer rods are clumps of granular
    material diagnostic of acute myeloid leukemia
    (AML). Reed-sternberg bodies are the "owl-eyes"
    pathognomonic for Hodgkin's lymphoma.

5
RBC2
  • A 24-year-old, thin, African man comes to your
    office as a new patient. He has recently moved to
    America and speaks little English. When you ask
    about previous medical history, he says that he
    has a problem with his blood and has frequent
    pain, but cannot explain any more. His sclerae
    are icteric. Upon questioning, he reports that
    his family members also have the same problem
    with their blood. What type of hematologic
    disorder should be suspected in this patient?A.
    Genetic hemoglobinopathyB. Iron-deficiency
    anemiaC. Prothrombotic stateD. PorphyriaE.
    Thalassemia

6
Answer
  • A is the correct answer Hemoglobinopathies (A)
    are qualitative defects in hemoglobin, typically
    due to genetic mutations in globin genes. This
    leads to amino acid substitutions, which affects
    the structure, function, and stability of the
    hemoglobin. The most common mutation is that of
    beta-globin, leading to the HbS of sickle cell
    disease. This patient's appearance, ancestry, and
    family history make a hemoglobinopathy most
    likely.Iron-deficiency anemia (B) can be caused
    by many disease processes such as blood loss or
    inadequate dietary intake, but would be unlikely
    to cause systemic disease as this patient
    manifests.Prothrombotic state (C) can be
    genetic or acquired. This patient's presentation
    and appearance are not suggestive of a
    prothrombotic state, and his young age also makes
    this relatively less likely.(D) Porphyrias can
    be inherited or acquired. They are caused by
    excessive production, accumulation and excretion
    of porphyrins or their precursors. These are much
    rarer than hemoglobinopathies, especially in
    Africans.Thalassemia (E) is a quantitative
    deficiency of hemoglobin caused by an unbalanced
    synthesis of globin chains. Typically, an entire
    chain is deficient, either lacking an alpha-chain
    or a beta-chain. If the patient does not have a
    hemoglobinopathy, this diagnosis may be worth
    exploring.
  • Sickle Cell - salmonella osteomyelitis

7
RBC3
  • You are examining a patient's peripheral blood
    smear under a light microscope. The patient is a
    35-year-old woman who complains of increasing
    fatigue over the last several months. She is a
    strict vegetarian and eats no animal products. As
    a child, she had a portion of her terminal ileum
    removed.
  • The smear is notable for considerable enlargement
    of the RBCs and hypersegmented neutrophils. You
    don't notice any schistocytes.From these
    observations, what is the most likely condition
    the patient has?A. Heriditary spherocytosisB.
    Iron-deficiency anemiaC. Vitamin B12 deficiency
    anemiaD. Sickle cell anemiaE. Thalassemia

8
Answer
  • C is the correct answer The smear is consistent
    with megaloblastic anemia which usually results
    from folate or Vitamin B12 deficiency. In this
    case the history is most consistent with B12
    deficiency (lack of red meat, terminal ileum
    resection, pernicious anemia).
  • Iron deficiency anemia would result in a
    microcytic anemia and be more consistent in a
    woman with heavy menstrual periods. Thalassemia
    is also microcytic but would usually present
    earlier an is characterized by uniform small
    RBCs. Sickle cell anemia would show evidence of
    sickling. Hereditary spherocytosis would
    demonstrate round RBCs on peripheral smear and
    also usually presents in childhood with anemia
    and enlarged spleen.

9
RBC4
  • A 75-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid
    arthritis presents complaining of progressively
    worsening fatigue and weight loss. He has lost 30
    lbs over the past two months and is losing his
    appetite. A stool guaiac is positive and his
    hematocrit is 32. Considering the most likely
    cause of this patient's anemia, which value is
    most likely to be decreased?A. RBC
    protoporphyrinB. Serum ferritinC. Serum ironD.
    Soluble transferrin receptor levelsE. Total iron
    binding capacity

10
Answer
  • C is the correct answer This patient likely has
    an iron-deficiency anemia secondary to occult
    blood loss (possibly due to colon cancer given
    the positive stool guiac). The stages of iron
    deficiency in sequence are as followsabsent iron
    storesdecreased serum ferritindecreased serum
    iron increased TIBC decreased iron
    saturation() normochromic normocytic anemia
    microcytic hypochromic anemia. The total iron
    binding capacity will be elevated as there are
    relatively "more" binding sites for iron on
    transferrin receptors. Increased transferrin
    levels will also increase the soluble receptor
    levels. RBC protoporphyrin will rise as iron is
    needed to proceed from this intermediate in heme
    synthesis.Serum ferritin in iron-deficiency
    anemia is generally low, as it reflects the iron
    "stores" in the bone marrow (which will be
    depleted). However, in patients with concomitant
    inflammatory states such as cancer (possible
    colon cancer in this patient) or autoimmune
    disease (rheumatoid arthritis in this patient),
    ferritin levels may not be decreased as it is
    also an acute phase reactant.

11
RBC5
  • What process do erythrocytes obtain their energy
    primarily from under normal physiological
    conditions?A. GlycolysisB. Lipid metabolismC.
    Oxidative phosphorylationD. PhotosynthesisE.
    Pyruvate metabolism

12
Answer
  • A is the correct answer
  • Erythrocytes do not have any membrane-bound
    organelles (such as mitochondria). Therefore,
    they can only obtain their energy through
    glycolysis.

13
Anemia Classification
Microcytic (lt 80) Normocytic (80-100) Macrocytic (gt 100)
Iron deficiency Chronic Disease Folate deficiency
Chronic Disease Others B12 deficiency
Sickle Cell Hemolytic often Liver disease
Thalassemia Aplastic Hypothyroidism
Lead Poisoning EtOH
Sideroblastic

14
Iron Deficiency vs Chronic Disease
Type Serum Iron TIBC Ferritin Marrow Iron
Iron Def
Chronic Disease
15
Hemolytic Anemia
  • Hereditary Spherocytosis Lab test?
  • G6PD Inheritance?
  • Autoimmune
  • Warm IgG
  • Cold IgM Associated with what bacteria?

16
WBC1
  • In young infants as well as geriatrics patients,
    "bandemia" (increased band cells) is a sign of
    acute bacterial infection. When a band cells
    differentiates, which of the following types of
    cells is a possible mature cell type it can
    become?A. ErythrocyteB. LymphocyteC.
    NeutrophilD. MonocyteE. Platelet

17
Answer
  • C is the correct answer Myeloblasts
    differentiate into promyelocytes, myelocytes,
    metamyelocytes, then band cells, and finally
    branch into neutrophils, eosinophils and
    basophils. These types of cells are all known as
    granulocytes. Lymphoblasts differentiate into B
    cell and T cell lymphocytes, as well as natural
    killer cells. Monoblasts differentiate into
    monocytes. Megakaryoblasts turn into
    megakaryocytes, which produce platelets.

18
WBC2
  • A 35 year-old male presents with fever and
    abdominal swelling. He reports weight loss and
    night sweats over the past month. Physical exam
    reveals enlarged abdominal lymph nodes a lymph
    node biopsy demonstrates a "starry sky"
    appearance. Which virus is most likely
    associated with the condition described
    above?A. Epstein Barr VirusB. Hepatitis B
    VirusC. Human Immunodefiency VirusD. Human
    Papilloma VirusE. Human T-cell Lymphoma Virus-1

19
Answer
  • A is the correct answer This patient
    classically presents with Burkitt's lymphoma.
    This neoplasm has been linked to infection with
    Epstein Barr Virus (EBV, (A)).(B) HBV is
    associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.(C)
    HIV is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma.(D) HPV
    is linked to cancers of the cervix and vulva, as
    well as laryngeal papillomas. (E) HTLV-1 is
    linked to adult T cell leukemia and lymphoma.

20
WBC3
  • A patient presents with cervical lymphadenopathy.
    Biopsy demonstrates a nodular lymphoma with
    follicle formation. This lesion would most likely
    be associated with which of the following?
  •  
  • (A)       bcr-c-abl
  • (B)       bcl-2 activation
  • (C)       c-myc activation
  • (D)       t(8, 14)
  • (E)       t(9, 22)
  •  
  •  

21
Answer
  • The correct answer is B. Nodular lymphomas of all
    types are derived from the B-cell line. The
    translocation t(14, 18), with bcl-2 activation,
    is associated with these lymphomas.
  •  
  • An abl-bcr hybrid (bcr-c-ablPhiladelphia
    chromosome choice A) and t(9, 22) translocation
    (choice E) are associated with chronic myeloid
    leukemia (CML).
  •  
  • c-myc activation (choice C) and t(8, 14) (choice
    D) are associated with Burkitt lymphoma.

22
WBC4
  • 60 y/o African American male presents with
    constipation and generalized bone pain is found
    to have hypercalcemia. Skull x-ray shows lytic
    bone lesions. What abnormality is likely on
    urinalysis?
  • A. Increased leukocyte esterase
  • B. Decreased specific gravity
  • C. Glucose
  • D. Increased protein
  • E. No abnormality

23
Answer
  • The answer is D, Increased protein
  • The patient in this case presents with symptoms
    of hypercalcemia secondary to multiple myeloma.
    In addition to lytic bone lesions, it is
    characterized by Bence Jones protein (Ig kappa
    light chain) in the urine, anemia and rouleaux
    formation of rbcs, and increased infections.
  • The other U/A findings are associated with UTI,
    DI, DM respectively.

24
WBC5 Diagnosis?
  • 4 y/o m w/ 1 wk h/o fever, pallor, ha, and bone
    tenderness. PE fever, HSM, and generalized LAD.
    Bld Smear reveals absolute lymphocytosis with
    abundant TdT lymphoblasts
  • 17 y/o m w/ 2mo h/o fever, night sweats and wt
    loss. PE cervical LAD and HSM, CBC
    leukocytosis, CXR bil hilar LAD, node biopsy
    Reed-Sternberg cells
  • 60 y/o m w/ fatigue and anorexia. PE gen LAD and
    HSM, WBC 250,000, pos direct Coombs, smear shows
    numerous small round lymphocytes and smudge cells

25
Leukemia Review
ALL Kids, fever, HSM, LAD
AML Auer rods, t(15,17) assoc with which type? Tx?
CLL Elderly, smudge cells
CML Philadelphia Cr, what translocation? Tx?
26
Lymphoma Review
Hodgkins Reed Sternberg, young men, B symptoms, contiguous
Burkitt EBV, starry sky, jaw mass, t(8,14)
Follicular Most common, translocation?
Lympho-blastic T-cell, mediastinal mass in kids
Mycosis Fungoides Skin manifestations
27
Platelets
  • A 20 y/o female presents with anemia secondary to
    a history of heavy menstrual periods since
    menarche. On further questioning, her mother also
    has a history of heavy periods and some kind of
    clotting disorder. Given the mostly likely
    diagnosis, evaluation of platelets, bleeding time
    and coagulation would likely show which of the
    following?
  • Increased bleeding time, decreased platelets
  • Increased PT, PTT, bleeding time, dec platelets
  • Increased bleeding time and PTT, normal platelets
  • No abnormality
  • Increased PTT only

28
Answer
  • The correct answer is C. The patient likely has
    von Willebrand Disease. See chart

Disease PLTs Bleed Time PT PTT
ITP/TTP/HUS Nml Nml
vWD Nml Nml
Hemophilia Nml Nml Nml
DIC
29
Oncology1
  • A 44 year-old female reports a waxing and waning
    cough, dyspnea and vague chest discomfort for the
    past five years. She also has intermittent fevers
    over the same time period with a six pound weight
    loss. On exam, red, tender subcutaneous swelling
    is found on both lower limbs, and decreased
    breath sounds and rales are found bilaterally. A
    biopsy of one of the skin lesions shows
    noncaseating granulomas. A chest X-ray shows
    mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Which of the
    following electrolyte abnormalities is most
    likely evident in this patient's plasma?A.
    HypercalcemiaB. HyperkalemiaC. HypernatremiaD.
    HypocholermiaE. Hyponatremia

30
Answer
  • A is the correct answer The likely diagnosis
    is pulmonary sarcoidosis. The noncaseating
    granulomas are evident in the skin lesions of
    erythema nodosum and the chest X-ray shows hilar
    adenopathy. An increase in serum vitamin D levels
    are a result of hypersecretion by pulmonary
    macrophages, resulting in the body retaining
    calcium. Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria are
    apparent on laboratory examination.

31
Oncology2
  • A 66-year-old man presents with new-onset weight
    gain, excessive sweating, and increased fatigue.
    His only significant past medical history is a
    bout of uncomplicated pneumonia several years
    ago. On physical examination, his voice sounds
    hoarse, which he attributes to his 2-packs per
    day smoking habit for the last 25 years, and
    there are purple markings over his abdomen.
    Corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) challenge
    and dexamethasone suppression test are within
    normal limits, and bilateral adrenal CT scan is
    negative. Chest X-ray reveals a left lung mass
    adjacent to the hilum. Assuming that a lung
    neoplasm is responsible for his symptoms, what is
    this patients most likely prognosis?A. Benign
    courseB. Good prognosis with surgeryC. Good
    prognosis due to low incidence of metastatic
    spreadD. Poor prognosis due to likely metastatic
    spread to distant sitesE. Prognosis comparable
    to squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

32
Answer
  • D is the correct answer This patients
    50-pack-year history of smoking puts him at risk
    for carcinoma of the lung. His signs and symptoms
    are consistent with paraneoplastic syndrome,
    commonly seen in the setting of small cell lung
    cancer. Small cell lung cancer carries the worst
    prognosis of all lung carcinomas due to its early
    metastatic spread to distant sites, including the
    brain, liver, bone, and adrenal glands. For this
    reason, surgery is not generally considered as
    effective treatment. Small cell lung cancer
    frequently involves hilar and mediastinal lymph
    nodes, which can be demonstrated on chest X-ray
    and manifest as hoarseness due to invasion or
    compression of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
    by the expanding lymph nodes.Choices A, B, and
    C are incorrect. Squamous cell carcinoma (Choice
    E) carries the best prognosis of all lung cancer
    for potential 5-year survival.

33
Lung Cancer Review
Type Key Words Paraneoplastic?
Squamous Best prognosis, smoking, hilar PTH
Adeno Most common, scar, peripheral
Large Cell/Oat Cell Peripheral lung, poor prognosis HCG, gynecomastia
Small Cell Distant mets, poor prognosis ACTH, ADH
34
Oncology3
  • A pathologist receives a normal specimen resected
    from a patients gastrointestinal tract. Under
    the microscope, she sees that the mucosa contains
    columnar cells lacking villi. There are many
    straight and long tubular glands. This specimen
    most likely originates from which portion of the
    GI tract?A. EsophagusB. Large intestineC.
    PharynxD. Small IntestineE. Stomach

35
Answer
  • B is the correct answer The large intestine
    (choice B) contains the cecum and the colon. Its
    mucosa is composed of columnar cells lacking
    villi, and contains openings which give way to
    tubular glands known as the crypts of Lieberkuhn.
    The mucosa of the esophagus (choice A) is
    composed of thick, stratified, squamous,
    nonkeratinized epithelium. The pharynx (choice
    C) contains stratified, squamous epithelium, as
    well as ciliated, pseudostratified, columnar
    epithelium. Intestinal villi are the hallmark
    of the small intestine (choice D). They are
    composed of outgrowths of the mucous membrane
    into the lumen. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are also
    found in the small intestine. The stomach
    (choice E) mucosa contain simple, columnar cells,
    but lacks the crypts of Lieberkuhn

36
Oncology4
  • A patient comes to you for counseling about his
    risk for colon cancer. Which of the following
    risk factors in this patient is thought to be
    associated with colon cancer?
  • A. Hx of colon CA in a 2nd cousin
  • B. Obesity
  • C. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
  • D. Diet rich in fruit and vegetables
  • E. Smoking

37
Answer
  • The answer is B, obesity
  • Colon cancer is thought to be associated with
    obesity, history of cancer in a 1st degree
    relative, inflammatory bowel disease, and diets
    rich in red meat.
  • Diets rich in fruits, veggies and fiber can be
    colon protective. Regular exercise may also be of
    benefit.

38
Colon Cancer Review
  • Polyp Syndromes
  • FAP, Lynch, Peutz-Jeghers
  • Screening?
  • Symptoms? Ascending vs Descending
  • Treatment?
  • Prognostic factor?
  • Metastasis?

39
Oncology5
  • A firm, irregular prostatic nodule is discovered
    during annual physical examination of a 66y/o
    patient. Biopsy reveals the presence of prostate
    cancer. Which of the following factors has the
    greatest prognostic impact?
  • A. Degree of cellular atypia
  • B. Histological grading
  • C. Initial PSA level
  • D. Pathological staging
  • E. Presence of mitotic figures

40
Answer
  • The answer is D, Pathological Staging
  • Stage is determined by extent of tumor
    infiltration and metastasis. TNM is a common
    method. Survival has been more closely correlated
    with staging vs grading of tumor. PSA is not a
    reliable prognostic indicator but can be useful
    in monitoring disease recurrence.

41
Breast Cancer Review
  • Risk Factors?
  • Screening?
  • Most Common Type?
  • Common location/presentation?
  • Diagnosis?
  • Metastasis?
  • Prognostic indicator?

42
Questions?
43
References
  • www.wikitestprep.org
  • Deja Review USMLE Step 1 Essentials
  • USMLE Step 1 Lange QA
  • My Email afrey_at_neoucom.edu
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