Title: Washington
1Washington Leaver Principles and Practice of
Radiation Therapy,
- Chapter 35 Digestive System Tumors
2At what age should a person of average risk have
his or her first screening colonoscopy?
3ANS C
- According to the American Cancer Society
screening guidelines for the early detection of
colorectal cancer, beginning at age 50, it is
recommended that an average-risk person undergoes
an annual fecal occult blood test or fecal
immunochemical test, a flexible sigmoidoscopy and
double contrast barium enema every 5 years, and a
colonoscopy every 10 years.
4A three-field technique using hinge angles of 120
degrees can be used in the treatment of which
cancer?
- a. esophageal
- b. gastric
- c. rectal
- d. hepatic
5ANS A
- A variety of off-cord field arrangements can be
used, depending on the location of the tumor. The
most common field arrangements are oblique and
lateral radiation portals. Many institutions use
a three-field approach an anterior field and two
posterior-wedged obliques, especially for lesions
of the thoracic esophagus.
6Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and
hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal syndrome
(HNPCC) are most closely associated with which
type of cancer?
- a. esophageal
- b. pancreatic
- c. colorectal
- d. anal
7ANS C
- Other principal factors in the development of
colon cancer include the following chronic
ulcerative colitis, carcinomas arising in
preexisting adenomatous polyps, and the
hereditary cancer syndromes. These syndromes are
FAP and HNPCC.
8Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is
associated with cancer of which anatomic region?
- a. esophagus
- b. stomach
- c. liver
- d. colon
9ANS A
- Long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease
called GERD is associated with the development of
adenocarcinomas of the distal esophagus.
10What is the treatment of choice for most anal
cancers?I. surgery II. ChemotherapyIII.
radiation therapy
- a. I only
- b. III only
- c. I and II
- d. II and III
- e. I, II, and III
11ANS D
- Combination radiation therapy and chemotherapy
(5-FU and mitomycin C) is advocated as the
preferred method of treatment and considered the
standard of care for most patients.
12The Whipple is a surgical procedure associated
with cancer of which organ?
- a. pancreas
- b. esophagus
- c. stomach
- d. colon
13ANS A
- The most common potentially curative surgical
procedure for pancreatic cancer is a
pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure).
14The vermiform appendix is most closely associated
with which portion of the digestive tract?
- a. ileum
- b. cecum
- c. duodenum
- d. rectum
15ANS B
- The vermiform appendix is a diverticulum of the
cecum
16What is the dose-limiting structure of most
concern for radiation treatments of colorectal
cancers?
- a. spinal cord
- b. bladder
- c. normal colon
- d. small bowel
17ANS D
- For irradiation of the pelvis, the dose-limiting
structure or organ-at-risk (OAR) is the small
bowel. The small bowel dose should be less than
45 Gy.
18What is the dose-limiting structure of most
concern for radiation treatments of the
esophagus?
- a. normal esophagus
- b. heart
- c. spinal cord
- d. trachea
19ANS C
- Careful dosimetry planning is necessary to avoid
overdosing the spinal cord when treating
esophageal cancers. AP/PA fields are used
initially as cord tolerance is approached, an
off-cord technique is implemented.
20What is the most common histologic type of
cancers that occur in the lower third of the
esophagus?
- Adenocarcinoma
- transitional cell carcinoma
- squamous cell carcinoma
- renal cell carcinoma
21ANS A
- The most common pathologic types of esophageal
cancer are squamous cell carcinoma and
adenocarcinoma. Squamous cell carcinomas are
found most frequently in the upper and middle
thoracic esophagus. Adenocarcinoma typically
occurs in the distal esophagus and
gastroesophageal junction however, it can occur
in other regions of the esophagus.
22What substance is responsible for the brown color
of feces?
- bilirubin
- coli
- Pepsin
- undigested food
23ANS A
- An obstruction of the biliary system results in
excess bilirubin to be excreted in urine and less
bilirubin to enter the bowel. This results in
patients having dark urine and light-colored
stools.
24Which of the following cancers is most common in
the United States?
- esophagus
- Stomach
- Liver
- Colorectal
25ANS D
- Cancer of the colon is ranked third in incidence
when comparing men and women separately.
26Which of the following cancers has the highest
incidence of cancer-related deaths in the United
States?
- Esophagus
- stomach
- colorectal
- anal
27ANS C
- Colorectal cancer is the second leading cause of
cancer death in the United States, accounting for
approximately 53,000 deaths annually.
28Which of the following is not a risk factor for
anal cancer?
- a. diet
- b. human papillomavirus
- c. anal intercourse
- d. immunosuppression
29ANS A
- The etiologic factors for the development of anal
cancer are associated with genital warts, genital
infections, human papillomaviruses, anal
intercourse in men or women before age 30, and
immunosuppression
30Which of the following cancer sites can be
treated with endocavitary radiation therapy?
- esophagus
- stomach
- rectum
- liver
31ANS C
- Endocavitary radiation therapy is a
sphincter-preserving procedure done for curative
intent in a select group of patients with low- to
middle-third rectal cancers that are confined to
the bowel wall.
32Which of the following methods may reduce the
dose to the small bowel during radiation
therapy? I. supine positioning II. prone
positioning III. full bladder IV. empty bladder
- a. I and III
- b. I and IV
- c. II and III
- d. II and IV
33ANS C
- The reduction of the small-bowel dose is achieved
through patient positioning and positioning
devices, bladder distention, multiple-shaped
fields, and dosimetric weighting.
34What condition is an iron-deficient anemia
characterized by esophageal webs, atrophic
glossitis, and spoon-shaped, brittle fingernails?
- a. Barrett esophagus
- b. Gardner syndrome
- c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
- d. tenesmus
35ANS C
- Plummer-Vinson syndrome (also known as
Paterson-Kelly syndrome) is an iron-deficient
anemia characterized by esophageal webs, atrophic
glossitis, and spoon-shaped, brittle fingernails.
36What condition is most closely associated to
gastroesophageal reflux?
- a. Barrett esophagus
- b. Gardner syndrome
- c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
- d. tenesmus
37ANS A
- Barrett esophagus is a condition in which the
distal esophagus is lined with a columnar
epithelium rather than a stratified squamous
epithelium. This mucosal change usually occurs
with gastroesophageal reflux.
38What condition is most closely associated to
adenomatous polyposis?
- a. Barrett esophagus
- b. Gardner syndrome
- c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
- d. tenesmus
39ANS B
- Patients with Gardner syndrome have adenomatous
polyposis of the large bowel and other abnormal
growths, such as upper gastrointestinal polyps,
periampullary tumors, lipomas, and fibromas.
40TRUE/FALSE
41- Men are more at risk of developing anal cancer
than women.
42ANS F
- Cancers of the anus occur more often in women
than in men
43- Most esophageal cancers are discovered in early
stages.
44ANS F
- Esophageal cancer is usually diagnosed at an
advance stage and is nearly a uniformly fatal
disease.
45- Pancreatic cancer is highly curable with combined
therapies.
46ANS F
- Pancreatic cancer has a high mortality rate and
is considered one of the deadliest malignancies.
47- Radiation treatment portals of the lower third of
the esophagus typically include the
supraclavicular lymph nodes.
48ANS F
- Regional spread to draining lymphatics is a
common early presentation and must be taken into
consideration in the design of the radiation
field. The cervical, supraclavicular,
mediastinal, and subdiaphragmatic (celiac axis)
lymph node regions are at risk. The degree to
which these nodal groups are at risk depends on
the location of the primary tumor.
Supraclavicular nodes are involved more often
with a proximal lesion than a distal lesion.
49- The treatment volume for colon cancers typically
includes pelvic lymph nodes.
50ANS T
- The treatment fields for colon cancer patients
are typically designed to encompass the primary
tumor volume and pelvic lymph nodes, shrinking
the field to treat the primary target volume to a
higher dose.