ALL QUESTIONS

1
ALL QUESTIONS
2
Question from the 2002 Chief Exam
3
Q
Compression ratio in 2 person CPR?
A
51
4
Q
Ratio of compressions to breaths in CPR?
A
15 to 2
5
Q
During CPR, How many compressions per minute?
A
60 to 80
6
Q
Voltmeters should always be connected in ?
A
Parallel
7
Q
A PPR less than _______ is unacceptable ?
A
80
8
Q
PMS accomplishment logs will be retained for
how long ?
A
1 quarter / 13 weeks
9
Q
______ are the basic PMS reference documents ?
A
MIP
10
Q
Who may conditionally accept an installation for
up to 180 days ?
A
EMO
11
Q
Idenfifies Navy Managed mandatory turn-in
repairable items ?
A
NAVSUP Pub 4107 MRIL
12
Q
First document that you should use to ensure the
MRC is up to date ?
A
MIP
13
Q
Bonding by direct metal to metal contact,
how Should paint, preservative, corrosion
contaminants Be removed ?
A
Down to clear surface at 1/4 around
mounting. Sand, file, grind, brush, scrape, etc
down to smooth bright metal.
14
Q
How often does the enlisted safety council meet ?
A
Monthly
15
Q
MRC first two digit in syscom MIP control number
Means what?
A
MUST LOOK UP ANSWER
16
Q
Item required for initial outfitting/installation
or For an increased allowance (no turn-in) What
advice code ?
A
5D
17
Q
A satellite orbiting in an inclined orbit with an
angle Of inclination of 90 degrees or near 90
degrees is What Type of orbit ?
A
Polar Orbit
18
Q
Who designates certain officials to be Top
Secret Original Classification Authorities
(OCAs) ?
A
SECNAV
19
Q
Who is responsible for administering SCI
programs For the DON ?
A
DNI Director of Naval Intelligence (CNO(N2))
20
Q
What class AMP works for 51 - 99 of input
signal?
A
AB
21
Q
Who is responsible for the security management
and Implementation of SCI programs ?
A
ONI Officer of Naval Intelligence
22
Q
What are the Freqs that fall between the
microwave region ?
A
1000 Megahertz - 1000,000 Megahertz
23
Q
_____ is a special incentive awards program
designed to find new ideas to effectively
increase performance within the DON ?
A
MILCAP Military cash awards program
24
Q
What reenlistment zone is for people who have
completed 10 but not more than 14 years of active
military service ?
A
Zone C
25
Q
Type of protocol developed in 1978 by the
International Standards Organization ?
A
Open Systems Interconnections OSI (7 OSI layers)
26
Q
Appeals to article 15 offenses must be made
within how many days ?
A
5 days
27
Q
What type of format writes the tracks sectors
on the disk ?
A
Low-level
28
Q
Any unplanned or unexpected event causing
material loss or damage or causing personnel
injury or death?
A
Mishap
29
Q
Cost plant property ? Find the question -)
A
Dont know
30
Q
The out-of-commission list must be reviewed
weekly by ______ What entries should be on the
OOC?
A
C.O. CASREP PRI 2
31
Q
A site specific listing of all deferred
maintenance, open ECPs?
A
CSMP
32
Q
TSCA - Top Secret Control Assistant must be?
A
E-5 or above Officer GS-5 or above Must have TS
clearance and designated in writing by C.O.
33
Q
A check that provides official, factual
documentation of all matters pertaining to a
mishap which can be used for legal or
administrative action ?
A
JAG manual investigation
34
Q
A waveguide bend must have a minimum of what
radius ?
A
Greater than 2 wavelenghts
35
Q
Command training team, Command assessment team,
action planning, Inspections, are the minimum
elements of what Navy program?
A
CMEO
36
Q
How often should the enlisted Safety Committee
meet?
A
Monthly
37
Q
What is Score?
A

• Reenlist for conversion to critically undermanned
  ratings
• Guaranteed A school w/ rating
• Conversion after graduation
• C School if available
• Adv to P.O. 2 upon C school completion
• SRB if eligible

38
Q
SGLI is good for how long?
A
120 days after separation
39
Q
How long are records of security awareness
training retained?
A
1 year
40
Q
Bulk of hair for Men women?
A
2 inches
41
Q
What type of memory is a small, high speed RAM
buffer located between the CPU and main memory?
A
Cache
42
Q
Top Secret info inventories must be completed how
often?
A
At least annually
43
Q
What instruction is basic guidance for Navy
occupational safety and health?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.23B
44
Q
Levels where noise is considered Hazardous?
A
Continuous or intermittent sound levels above
84dB Impact noise above 140dB peak
45
Q
What programs support NAVSECGRU correction of
noise vs system performance?
A
SNEP ANMS
46
Q
What programs support NAVSECGRU correction of
noise vs system performance?
A
SNEP ANMS
47
Q
Used to secure a LAN from a public Network?
A
Firewall
48
Q
Never load any UPS systems above ___ without
prior approval from COMNAVSECGRU (G43)
A
80
49
Q
RAR is calculated how?
A
Count total MRs Exclude dailies, weeklies
include situaltional RAR MRF .5(MRP)
------------------------
MRs -sched
50
Q
What color is used to schedule all lay-up and
periodic requirments in the IEM section of the
MIP?
A
GREEN
51
Q
Exposure of SCI to unauth persons that are DCID
1/14 eligible but not indoctrinated?
A
Compromised Improbable
52
Q
What systems use Yellow cable (coaxial)?
A
Time Code
53
BASIC MILITARY REQUIREMENTS CHAPTER 6
54
Q
What is the primary mission of the Navy?
A
To support US national interests
Question Source
55
Q
When was the DOD formed by combining the
Department of War and Department of the Navy?
A
1947
Question Source
56
Q
Who is on the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
A
-Chairman -military head of Army, Navy, Air
Force -Commandant of the Marine Corps
Question Source
57
Q
Who heads the Department of Defense?
A
Secretary of Defense
Question Source
58
Q
Who are the secretaries (defense, SECNAV,
etc.) Appointed by and are the civilian or
military?
A
Appointed by the President and civilian
Question Source
59
Q
The mission of the Navy?
A
To maintain, train, and equip combat-ready naval
Forces capable of winning wars, deterring
aggression, And maintaining freedom of the seas.
Question Source
60
Q
Who is responsible for conducting the affairs of
The DON, formulates and implements policies and
Programs consistent with national security?
A
SECNAV
Question Source
61
Q
When was the Department of the Navy established?
A
30 APR 1798
Question Source
62
Q
When was the US Navy founded?
A
13 October 1775R
Question Source
63
Q
Name the three principle components that are part
of The DON?
A
Navy Department Operating forces including marine
corps Shore establishment
Question Source
64
Q
U.S. coast Guard is a part of the DON when?
A
During wartime, normally under Department Of
Transportation.
Question Source
65
Q
List three military departments of the DoD?
A
Army Navy Air Force
Question Source
66
Q
What is used as a guide for unit organization?
A
Standard Organizational and Regulations of
the U.S. Navy, OPNAVINST 3120.32
Question Source
67
Q
The Standard Organization and Regulations of the
U.S. Navy is referred to as what on board ship?
A
Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual
Question Source
68
Q
Name 3 aspects of a ships organization
covered By the Shipboard Organization and
Regulations Manual.
A
-Units admin organization, including
watches -Coordination of evolutions and emergency
procedures -Conduct of personnel
Question Source
69
Q
What are the 2 elements of a ships organization?
A
Battle organization Administrative organization
Question Source
70
Q
What is contained in the battle organization and
what Is it dependant on?
A
List of numbers and specialties of the personnel
a unit Will need to fulfill the wartime
missions. It is dependant on a ships armament,
equipment, and personnel
Question Source
71
Q
Which organization covers training, maintenance,
Routine operations?
A
Administrative Organization
Question Source
72
Q
Who is the head of the administrative
organization?
A
CO
Question Source
73
Q
What is the minimum number of departments on a
Ship and what are they?
A
5 Navigation Engineering Operations Supply Weapons
/deck (sometimes may be separted)
Question Source
74
Q
Which Department is responsible for the safe
Navigation of the ship?
A
Navigation
Question Source
75
Q
Which department is in charge of all radar,
sonar, And communications equipment on the ship.
Collects And evaluates combat and operational
information and Conducts electronic warfare?
A
Operations Department
Question Source
76
Q
Which department is responsible for operation,
care And maintenance of all propulsion and
auxiliary equipment?
A
Engineering
Question Source
77
Q
Operates the general mess and ships store
manages Clothing and small storesissue room, pay
records, orders And receives general stores
supplies, spare parts, And ships equipment?
A
Supply
Question Source
78
Q
Which department is responsible for the
operation, Care, and maintenance of ships
armament and weapons Fire-control equipment?
A
Weapons or combat systems
Question Source
79
Q
Responsible for deck functions.?
A
Deck if separate from weapons/combat systems
Question Source
80
Q
If the ship has a deck department but no weapons
or Combat systems department the who is
responsible For deck functions?
A
First Lieutenant
Question Source
81
Q
If the ship has a combat systems department but
no deck Department then which department is
responsible for Deck functions?
A
Operations
Question Source
82
Q
Where are the COs duties and responsibilities
listed?
A
An entire chapter in the Navy regulations
Question Source
83
Q
Customs and regulations dictate that whom should
Assure the completion of abandon ship
procedures In the event of the ship sinking?
Should this person Be the last off the ship?
A
CO, yes
Question Source
84
Q
The power to do what by the CO may not be
delegated?
A
The power to impose limited punishment as per the
UCMJ
Question Source
85
Q
If the CO is absent, relieved from duty or
detached Without relief who is the next person in
line to take Command at sea?
A
The next senior LINE officer who is eligible to
take Command at sea and is attached or onboard
the ship.
Question Source
86
Q
Who arranges and coordinates all ships work,
drills, exercises, and policing and inspecting
the ship?
A
XO, with assistance from Department Heads
Question Source
87
Q
Which officer assigns personnel to the various
Departments, berthing arrangements, and to the
Task of maintaining enlisted service records?
A
Personnel Officer
Question Source
88
Q
Which officer secures school quotas,
schedules Orientation courses for newly reporting
personnel, And helps prepare long and short
range training goals?
A
Training officer
Question Source
89
Q
Which officer receipts for maintains, and
distributes Educational courses and training aids?
A
ESO
Question Source
90
Q
Who advises the CO and XO on all matters
Concerning the Navys Drug and Alcohol Abuse
program.
A
Drug and Alcohol Program advisor
Question Source
91
Q
Who serves as the XOs assistant and has direct
access To the CO while being the voice of the
enlisted?
A
Command Master Chief
Question Source
92
Q
Who is responsible for maintaining copies of all
division Orders and bills and displaying them in
a conspicuous Place training division personnel
and preparing them For battle?
A
Division Officer
Question Source
93
Q
What are the four departments usually found in
aircraft Squadrons?
A
Administration Safety Operations Maintenance
Question Source
94
Q
The safety department is usually divided into
what 3 ways?
A
Ground Safety Aviation Safety Naval Air Training
and operating Procedures standardization
(NATOPS)
Question Source
95
Q
The operations department in the aircraft
squadron is Responsible for what?
A
Operational readiness and tactical efficiency of
the squadron
Question Source
96
Q
Name the 4 divisions of an aircraft
maintenance department?
A
Maintenance/material control Quality
assurance Maintenance administration Aircraft,
avionics/armament, and airframes divisions
Question Source
97
Q
In an aircraft squadron each division is divided
into what?
A
branches
Question Source
98
Q
What are the 5 areas that affect the chain of
command?
A
Responsibility Accountability Direction Communicat
ion Work-related problems
Question Source
99
Q
Typical chain of command from CO of ship to The
President?
A
CO Type commander Force commander CNO SECNAV SECDE
F President
Question Source
100
Q
Typical shipboard chain of command?
A
Non rated personnel Immediate supervisor LPO Div
chief DO DH XO, CO
Question Source
101
BASIC MILITARTY REQUIREMENTS CHAPTER 13
102
Q
Defensive measures taken against the effects of
A chemical, a biological, or a nuclear weapons
attack?
A
CBR-D, Chemical, biological, and
radiological defense
Question Source
103
Q
What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?
A
Mass destruction of targets and personnel
Question Source
104
Q
What is the primary purpose of biological and
Chemical attacks?
A
Mass casualties of personnel, livestock and/or
crops
Question Source
105
Q
How many types of CW antipersonnel agents are
there And what are they?
A
2 Casualty Incapacitating
Question Source
106
Q
Name some chemical warfare agents?
A
Sarin, VX, Mustard, and Hydrogen cyanide
Question Source
107
Q
Can cause death or severely incapacitate
personnel For long periods of time. (chemical
type)? What Agents do these include?
A
Casualty Include blood, choking, nerve and
blister agents
Question Source
108
Q
Temporarily disable personnel but do not create
Permanent injury (chemical agent type), they
produce Physiological and/or psychological
effects?
A
Incapacitating
Question Source
109
Q
What antidotes are immediately self injected into
the Lateral thigh muscle for a reaction to nerve
agents?
A
Atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM c1)
Question Source
110
Q
Mustard vapor burns are most severe in what types
of areas?
A
Moist
Question Source
111
Q
If exposed to a blood agent, what do you do?
A
Don a protective mask immediately
Question Source
112
Q
What type of agent produces accumulation of
Fluid in the lungs?
A
choking
Question Source
113
Q
What is classified as either tear agents or
vomiting Agents and are characterized by very low
toxicity and Brief action?
A
RCAs, Riot control agents
Question Source
114
Q
The use of nerve agents produces symptoms
that Are similar to what other, more common
condition?
A
Heat stress
Question Source
115
Q
T or F. Cough suppressant and pain relievers
can Be given to a victim of a choking agent?
A
true
Question Source
116
Q
The intentional use of living organisms, toxins,
and Microtoxins to disable or to destroy people
and Domestic animals, damage crops or
deteriorate supplies?
A
Biological warfare
Question Source
117
Q
What are the early stages of biological disease?
Give Some examples of biological toxins.
A
Fever, malaise, inflammation Anthrax, Plague,
Tularemia, Botulinum toxin
Question Source
118
Q
How are nuclear explosions classed?
A
By the pt of detonation with relationship to the
surface Of the earth
Question Source
119
Q
Name the 4 classes of nuclear explosions.
A
High altitude blast Air blast Surface
blast Subsurface blast
Question Source
120
Q
Blast takes place above 100,000 feet and
purpose Is to disrupt or interrupt satellites and
communication Systems through the effect of
electromagnetic pulse?
A
High altitude blast
Question Source
121
Q
Fireball is below 100,000 feet and doesnt touch
the Earths surface, effective use is against a
battle group At sea because it would structurally
damage and/or Sink many ships?
A
Air blast
Question Source
122
Q
Name the 2 types of nuclear radiation.
A
Initial Residual
Question Source
123
Q
Residual radiation is worse for what type of
blast?
A
Surface
Question Source
124
Q
In an air blast the front of the blast is called
what?
A
Mock front
Question Source
125
Q
What is a circular cloud of mist that forms
around The base of the column of water that
shoots several Thousand feet into the air?
A
Base surge
Question Source
126
Q
Pressure at the wavefront that causes the most
physical Damage and is many times that of normal
atmospheric pressure?
A
overpressure
Question Source
127
Q
The effects of nuclear blast are divided into
what 3 categories?
A
Blast waves/shock waves Incendiary radiation
Question Source
128
Q
What type of burns can happen up to 25 miles
away Or more as a result of an air or surface
blast of a Nuclear weapon?
A
Flash burns
Question Source
129
Q
What is caused by the intense flash of light
that Accompanies a nuclear blast? How long to
recover During day and night?
A
Flash blindness, 15 minutes in daylight 45
minutes at night
Question Source
130
Q
Nuclear radiation hazards consist of what?
A
Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, and neutrons
Question Source
131
Q
Gamma and neutron radiation is found in initial
or Residual radiation?
A
Initial, are the most penetrating also
Question Source
132
Q
Gamma and beta radiation can be found in initial
or Residual radiation?
A
residual
Question Source
133
Q
List 4 measures used to protect equipment
from Damage against EMP (electromagnetic pulse) .
A
Metal shielding Good grounding Use of surge
arresters Proper arrangement of electrical wiring
Question Source
134
Q
A survey team who determines the extent and
location Of contamination consists of a minimum
of how many Personnel and who are they?
A
3 Monitor, recorder, and messenger
Question Source
135
Q
Who is the head of the survey team and carries
the High range and low range survey meters. He
is Also responsible for the safety of the team?
A
monitor
Question Source
136
Q
What are the 2 types of surveys conducted?
A
Rapid or gross Detailed
Question Source
137
Q
What is used to measure personnel exposure to
radiation?
A
Self reading or non-self-reading dosimter
Question Source
138
Q
The non-self reading is a high range casualty
dosimeter And measures what type of radiation
exposure and Up to what range?
A
Gamma, 0-600 roentgens
Question Source
139
Q
What is the only known method to detect
BW contaminants?
A
Sampling phase conducted by a CBR survey
team Laboratory phase conducted by medical
personnel
Question Source
140
Q
To calculate safe entry time and stay time in a
Radiologically contaminated area, you need
what 2 measurements?
A
Intensity (dose rate) of radiation field Total
amount (dose) received
Question Source
141
Q
Biological markers are what color and what
color inscription?
A
Blue,red
Question Source
142
Q
Chemical markers are what color with what color
inscription?
A
Yellow, red
Question Source
143
Q
To reduce the contamination from the base surge
and From fallout what fittings should be secured?
A
Circle W
Question Source
144
Q
Protective mask/gas mask, does not produce
oxygen, is Used for emergency escape?
A
MCU-2/P
Question Source
145
Q
What is used to check areas suspected of being
Contaminated by CW agents?
A
M256A1 detector kit
Question Source
146
Q
Chemical protective garments are usually good
for Continuous exposure limit of how long?
A
6 hours
Question Source
147
Q
How long should it take to don an MCU-2/P mask?
A
10 seconds
Question Source
148
Q
A flexible system of protection against chemical
agents And used in CW defense to help accomplish
the mission?
A
MOPP (Mission Oriented protective posture
Question Source
149
Q
How many levels of MOPP?
A
4 Level 1 being least protection to Level 4
being The most protection
Question Source
150
Q
At what MOPP level is material condition
ZEBRA Modified set?
A
Level 2
Question Source
151
Q
At what MOPP level is material condition
ZEBRA set?
A
Level 3
Question Source
152
Q
AT what level is circle william set?
A
Level 4
Question Source
153
Q
How many levels of decontamination and what Are
they?
A
4 Emergency personnel decontamination Limited
operational decontamination Operationally
complete decontamination Complete decontamination
Question Source
154
Q
The primary purpose of this level of
decontamination Is to safeguard you in protective
gear that includes Mask, overgarment, boots, and
gloves?
A
Level 1
Question Source
155
Q
The 2 types of contamination hazards are what?
A
Pickup hazards Transfer hazards
Question Source
156
Q
What is the most effective way to remove
radioactive Particles from the ship?
A
washdown
Question Source
157
Q
What is the most effective way to
decontaminate Areas exposed to BW agents?
A
Chemical disinfectant
Question Source
158
Q
Decon stations are divided into an ?
A
Unclean area Washing area (at least 5
minutes) Clean area
Question Source
159
ET VOLUME 6 CHAPTER 10
160
Q
Name the 3 common types of viruses.
A
-Worm -Trojan Horse -Logic Bomb
ET VOL 6 CH 10
161
Q
What are the drive interfaces used today (5)?
A
ST-506 IDE EIDE ESDI SCSI
ET VOL 6 CH 10
162
Q
Consists of all vertical tracks.
A
Cylinder
ET VOL 6 CH 10
163
Q
Indicates the start of a track on a 5.25 floppy
disk.
A
Index Hole
ET VOL 6 CH 10
164
Q
In ref to floppy disk constructionProvides for
the Heads to access the disk.
A
Media Access Hole
ET VOL 6 CH 10
165
Q
DOS, High level format creates (4)
A
-FAT -Empty root directory -2 Hidden system
files -command.com
ET VOL 6 CH 10
166
Q
Helps to properly position the disk in the drive
and prevent the disk from warping while in the
drive.
A
Stress relief notch
ET VOL 6 CH 10
167
Q
A program that copies itself endlessly, tying
up Computer time and overloading disks.
A
Worm
ET VOL 6 CH 10
168
Q
A virus that embeds itself into other programs.
Can Contain worms or logic bombs. Used as an
initial Source of infection.
A
Trojan Horse Virus
ET VOL 6 CH 10
169
Q
A virus that is embedded in a program or O/S
that Waits for an event to occur. Most
destructive of All viruses.
A
Logic Bomb
ET VOL 6 CH 10
170
Q
Disks are divided into
A
-Tracks -Cylinders -Sectors
ET VOL 6 CH 10
171
Q
A concentric ring on the disk.
A
Track
ET VOL 6 CH 10
172
Q
What is ROM referred to as when software is
Permanently (non-volatile) contained in
the Hardware?
A
Firmware
ET VOL 6 CH 10
173
Q
How may I/O ports does the SCSI have and what
is The transfer rate?
A
8 1-dedicated host adapter to computer 7-devices
100 megabits per second
ET VOL 6 CH 10
174
Q
Should a low-level format program be run on an
IDE Drive?
A
No - serious damage can result
ET VOL 6 CH 10
175
Q
Each sector can store how many bytes of data?
A
512
ET VOL 6 CH 10
176
Q
DOS 3.3 allows a max partition of __________
A
32M
ET VOL 6 CH 10
177
Q
DOS 4.0 and higher allow partitions up to
_________
A
4G
ET VOL 6 CH 10
178
Q
Any program designed to be willfully destructive.
A
Computer virus
ET VOL 6 CH 10
179
Q
Double density 3.5 inch floppy disks have a data
Capacity of what?
A
720K
Question Source
180
Q
3.5 floppy disk high density disk can store how
much data?
A
1.44M
Question Source
181
Q
Concentric rings written on the disk during the
Formatting process?
A
Tracks
Question Source
182
Q
The format program divides each data surface
into _______ and ________?
A
Tracks and sectors
Question Source
183
Q
Numbered divisions of the tracks designed to
make Data storage more manageable?
A
Sectors
Question Source
184
Q
Disk drives use what type of addressing method to
store And retrieve data?
A
Cylinder addressing
Question Source
185
Q
What does the cylinder number correspond to?
A
track
Question Source
186
Q
What does the cylinder address consist of?
A
Cylinder number Sector number Head or recording
surface number
Question Source
187
Q
What does a format program do?
A
Checks for bad areas Creates root
directory FAT Disk boot sector
Question Source
188
Q
Fixed disks used in PCs require a high level
Format that defines what?
A
Drive type O/S
Question Source
189
Q
Name 2 types of directories(DOS)?
A
Root Subdirectories
Question Source
190
Q
What does a zero indicate in a FAT entry?
A
Cluster is available
Question Source
191
Q
What are the 4 types of FAT entries?
A
O EOF code Bad cluster code (during
format) Number that points to next cluster in file
Question Source
192
Q
The heads are positioned over this hole to read
or write On the disk?
A
Media access hole
Question Source
193
Q
Indicates the start of sector 1 on each track.
Small hole To the bottom right of media access
hole?
A
Index hole
Question Source
194
Q
Hard sectored disks have how many index holes?
A
8 or 9
Question Source
195
Q
Center of the floppy disk (hole)?
A
Central hub access Hole
Question Source
196
Q
What does the hole on the bottom rt hand corner
of some 3.5 inch floppy disks designate?
A
Media indicator hole (high density)
Question Source
197
Q
Name the major components of a floppy drive (5)?
A
Spindle Assy/drive motor Drive electronics
circuit board Connectors Head Actuator
assy Read/write head arm assy
Question Source
198
Q
What holds the floppy disk in place while it
spins?
A
spindle
Question Source
199
Q
What spins the spindle at the proper speed?
A
Drive motor
Question Source
200
Q
Drive motors for floppy drives spin at
________rpm Except for 1.2M drive which spins at
________?
A
300 360
Question Source
201
Q

• What floppy drive component does
• Controls electromechanical parts
• Controls operation of R/W heads
• Interfaces the FD to the disk controller in the
• computer?

A
Drive electronics circuit board
Question Source
202
Q
A mechanical motor assy that moves the heads
Over the disks using a ______ _________.
A
Stepper motor Head actuator
Question Source
203
Q
When data is written on a disk, the erase heads
clip each Edge of the track ensuring data from 1
track does not Spill over to the next track?
A
Tunnel erasure
Question Source
204
Q
What is the measure of how much data can be
stored On a disk?
A
density
Question Source
205
Q
What are the 2 ways of measuring density on a
disk?
A
Longitudinal linear
Question Source
206
Q
What type of density measurement is defined by
how Many tracks per inch can be reliably written
on a disk (tpi)?
A
Longitudinal density
Question Source
207
Q
Measures disk density by how many bits per inch
Can be stored on a disk track?
A
Linear density
Question Source
208
Q
What is the magnetic field strength required to
Properly record data. What is it measured in?
A
Coercivity oersteds
Question Source
209
Q
Name 2 things coercivity is affected by?
A
Magnetic material used Thickness of material
Question Source
210
Q
DSDD (double sided double density) 5.25 disk Is
considered a high or low density disk?
A
LOW
Question Source
211
Q
A _______ density disk can never be used in A
_________ density drive?
A
HIGH LOW Low cannot generate the reqd write
current to write The data
Question Source
212
Q
The drive electronics card has several
jumpers (1-4)?
A
-drive select -terminating resistor -disk
changeling/ready jumper -media sensor jumper
Question Source
213
Q
What provides the proper load to the disk
controller card?
A
Terminating resistor
Question Source
214
Q
This jumper indicates the disk has been changed
and Therefore the directory must be reread?
A
Disk changeline/ready jumper
Question Source
215
Q
This jumper is only found on a 3.5 1.44M FD?
A
Media sensor jumper
Question Source
216
Q
What are hidden electro-magnetic field generators
That can affect data on your disk?
A
Telephone ring Computer monitor (demagnetizer)
Question Source
217
Q
Mass storage systems used to store large amounts
of Computer data on interchangeable disk packs.
A
Magnetic disk memory
Question Source
218
Q
Disk pack data recording surfaces contain
_______ Tracks. Of that how many are
addressable? The Remaining are used for what?
A
823 822 1
Question Source
219
Q
Each track on a disk pack data surface can
store ________BPI?
A
6083
Question Source
220
Q
A 5 recording surface disk pack has a storage
capacity Of what?
A
640 million bits (Mbits)
Question Source
221
Q
Contains pre-recorded dibits used to control the
Movement of the r/w heads to the desired
position And to maintain alignment of r/w heads
over track Centerline.
A
Servo surface
Question Source
222
Q
An analog bit with a positive or negative signal
Used to indicate odd or even tracks?
A
Dibit (dipole bit)
Question Source
223
Q
As the read-only head moves across the track the
signal From dipole bits are summed. When the
sum0 or null What does that mean?
A
Heads are centered on the track
Question Source
224
Q
What are the 4 control panels that can control
the disk Memory set?
A
Operators Panel Status/maint panel Disk status
panel Power supply panel
Question Source
225
Q
The disk memory set controller has 5 functional
Areas. Name them.
A
Microprocessor Buffer memory Controller to disk
drive interface Data bus control unit Cds channel
interface
Question Source
226
Q
There are 2 basic buses used to interface the
functional Areas of the controller?
A
Processor input and output bus Data bus
Question Source
227
Q
Controls the overall operation of the
controller Circuitry/ overall operation of the
magnetic disk Set.
A
microprocessor
Question Source
228
Q
Firmware is stored where?
A
ROM or micromemory
Question Source
229
Q
2048 address rom containing micromemory
jump Addresses, data masks, constants, code
conversion Tables for status/maint panel
function/message codes?
A
Lookup table
Question Source
230
Q
256 16 bit words of RAM is called_______?
A
file
Question Source
231
Q
Used to prevent the loss of data when reading
from Or writing onto a disk?
A
Buffer memory
Question Source
232
Q
Provides control of up to ______disk drives,
______ Internal to disk unit, and up to
_________drives Installed in memory units?
A
4, 1, 3 Controller to Disk Drive interface
Question Source
233
Q
Controls the transfer of data from source to
destination On the data bus?
A
DBCU (data bus control unit)
Question Source
234
Q
Disk drives are addressed how?
A
(0,1,2,3)
Question Source
235
Q
Data is recorded on the disk using what encoding
method?
A
Modified frequency modulation (MFM)
Question Source
236
Q
What is the disk pack speed?
A
3600 RPM
Question Source
237
Q
The speed of the disk pack is monitored by what?
A
Spur gear photocells
Question Source
238
Q
What speed must the disk pack be rotating for
the Heads to load by actuator assembly?
A
3100 RPM
Question Source
239
Q
Disk drive is divided into the following areas
(9)?
A
-drive motor assy -track servo circuit -spindle
assy -R/W circuits -speed sensor -actuator
assy -velocity transducer -head/arm assy -servo
circuit
Question Source
240
Q
What is the physical interference between the
disk Drive and the disk pack. Driven by drive
belt?
A
Spindle assy
Question Source
241
Q
Mechanism that supports and moves the
head/arm assy?
A
Actuator assy
Question Source
242
Q
Helps to control the acceleration and
deceleration of the Carriage assy during seek
operations?
A
Velocity transducer
Question Source
243
Q
Used to move r/w heads to the desired cylinder?
A
Servo circuit
Question Source
244
Q
What type of signal is developed using the
velocity Transducer to oppose the position error
and to dampen Carriage movement for smoother
operation?
A
Feedback
Question Source
245
Q
Maintains the head position over the track center
line?
A
Track servo circuit
Question Source
246
Q
What operation NRZ-gtMFM MFM-gtMFM-gtNRZ (analog)
(digital)?
A
Write reading
Question Source
247
Q
Average cost of a megabyte?
A
25 cents
Question Source
248
Q
A typical fixed hard drive includes 4 components?
A
-disk platters -head actuator assy -r/w head
assy -cables and connectors
Question Source
249
Q
What is contained inside an HDA (head disk assy)?
A
Heads Head actuator Platters
Question Source
250
Q
What are the common size of disk platters?
A
5.25 3.5 2
Question Source
251
Q
½ height drives 5.25 and 3.5 drives contain A
maximum of how many platters?
A
8
Question Source
252
Q
Full-height drives are limited to how many
platters?
A
11
Question Source
253
Q
Thinner coating more or less data?
A
more
Question Source
254
Q
A process in which the medium is applied to the
disk Using an electroplating mechanism. Final
layer is Cobalt alloy 3 millionths of an inch.
A
Platting
Question Source
255
Q
Process in which cobalt alloy is applied in a
near Vacuum (2 millionths of an inch) then coated
with A hard carbon.
A
sputtering
Question Source
256
Q
2 types of heads used in fixed disk systems?
A
Composite ferrite Thin film
Question Source
257
Q
Traditional type of head Iron oxide core wrapped
with electromagnetic coils Uses magnetic fields?
A
Composite ferrite head
Question Source
258
Q
IC chip head Light weight Increased accuracy and
signal to noise ration?
A
Thin film head
Question Source
259
Q
Name 2 types of head actuators?
A
Stepper motor actuator Voice coil actuator
Question Source
260
Q
Which head actuator system have heads that are
self parking?
A
Voice coil
Question Source
261
Q
Speed range of fixed disks?
A
3600-7200
Question Source
262
Q
Name 3 types of encoding data?
A
FMMFM (modified frequency modulation) RLL (run
length limited)
Question Source
263
Q
What type of format writes the tracks and secotrs
on The disk?
A
Low level
Question Source
264
Q
What is the encoding method currently used to
Write to FD, disk memory sets and fixed disks?
A
MFM
Question Source
265
Q
_______ increases the density and transfer rate
of data By 50?
A
RLL ( run length limited)
Question Source
266
Q
What can be changed to make a 20 M drive into a
30M drive?
A
Disk controller MFM to RLL
Question Source
267
Q
A method of numbering the sectors on a fixed disk
to Provide the optimal transfer of data between
controller And computer. (logical sector
numbers do not Necessarily follow physical
sectors)?
A
Interleaving
Question Source
268
Q
What are the several drive interface types (5)?
A
ST-506/412 IDE EIDE ESDI SCSI
Question Source
269
Q
What type of drive interface utilizes the
computers Bios ROM and requires the
encoder/decoder reside on Disk controller?
A
ST-506/412
Question Source
270
Q
What drive interface? High performance,
high-speed interface and controller 11
interleave 32-60 seconds per track Read drive
parameters directly off disk Tells the bios the
type of drive
A
ESDI (Enhanced Small Device Interface)
Question Source
271
Q
What drive interface? 40 pin connector Low level
formats will damage drive Controller interface
circuitry on drive logic card
A
IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics)
Question Source
272
Q
What drive interface? Address fixed disks with
over 540 MB of storage Faster data transfers Cd
rom capable
A
EIDE
Question Source
273
Q
What drive interface? Host adapter plugs into
PC 8 i/o ports ( 1 host, 7 devices) Smart
interface Transfer rate 100 megabits per sec
A
SCSI
Question Source
274
Q
Writes the tracks and sectors on the disk?
A
Low level format
Question Source
275
Q
What type of format identifies and marks any bad
Tracks with a checksum error preventing use?
A
Low level
Question Source
276
Q
Used to prevent problems that can occur when data
is Written on the higher numbered cylinders. It
changes The spacing of the magnetic fields?
A
Write precompensation
Question Source
277
Q
Compensates for problems that can occur on the
inner Tracks of a disk. Without it, it would
cause data to run Over each other.
A
Reduced write current
Question Source
278
Q
When does a disk not require write
precompensation?
A
When write precompensation highest
numbered cylinder
Question Source
279
Q
What is the max partition in DOS 3.3 And 4.0?
A
32M Up to 4G
Question Source
280
Q
What does a DOS high level format create?
A
FAT Empty root directory BOOT command.com 2
system hidden files
Question Source
281
Q
Command to create a bootable disk?
A
Format c/s
Question Source
282
Q
DEBUG program in DOS is used for what?
A
To manually recover an erased file
Question Source
283
Q
Any program designed to be willfully destructive?
A
Computer virus
Question Source
284
Q
A program that copies itself endlessly, tying up
Computer time and eventually overloading the
disk. Can also work over networks?
A
Worm virus
Question Source
285
Q
A program that embeds itself into other programs.
Can contain worms or logic bombs. Commonly
used As an initial source of infection?
A
Trojan horse virus
Question Source
286
Q
A virus that is embedded in a program or o/s that
waits For an event to occur. Most destructive?
A
Logic bomb virus
Question Source
287
Q
Name precautions to prevent viral attacks (5)?
A
Never use pirated software Make regular
backupsreport all virus to ADPSO Use only
authorized software Periodically check for virus
infections
Question Source
288
JOINT DODIIS CHAPTER 19
289
Q
What is Chapter 19 of the JOINT DoDIIS?
A
Multi position switches
Question Source
290
Q
Classification colors (on banner) SC TS S C U?
A
Yellow Orange Red Blue Green
Question Source
291
NEETS MODULE 7 CHAPTER 2
292
Q
The base of an NPN transistor must be ______ With
respect to the emitter, the collector msut
be ____ ______than the base?
A
Positive More positive
Question Source
293
Q
Transistor labeling 2N130A?
A
2 number of junctions N semiconductor 130
id number A modification number (A is 1st)
Question Source
294
Q
The common collector is also referred to as
__________________?
A
Emitter follower
Question Source
295
Q
The common collector configuration is used for
what?
A
Current driver for impedance matching Useful in
switching circuits
Question Source
296
Q
What transistor configuration is mainly used for
Impedance matching?
A
Common base
Question Source
297
Q
What transistor configuration is frequently used
for Amplifier circuits because it has good
voltage, current And power gains?
A
Common emitter
Question Source
298
Q
Which transistor configuration is the only
configuration That provides a phase reversal
between input and Output signals?
A
Common emitter
Question Source
299
Q
Which class amplifier has the highest degree of
fidelity?
A
Class A
Question Source
300
Q
Which class amplifier has the highest efficiency?
A
Class C
Question Source
301
Q
What is the term used to represent the faithful
Reproduction of a signal?
A
fidelity
Question Source
302
Q
What is the ration of output signal power
compared To the total input power?
A
Efficiency
Question Source
303
Q
What type of amplifier runs for 100 of the time?
A
Class A
Question Source
304
Q
What class amplifier runs for 75 of the time?
A
Class AB
Question Source
305
Q
What class amplifier runs for 50 of the time?
A
B
Question Source
306
Q
What class amplifier runs for about 25 of the
time?
A
Class C
Question Source
307
Q
An integrated circuit where the element
associated With the circuit are all fabricated
inside the substrate?
A
monolithic
Question Source
308
Q
What type of i.c. has the passive and active
componenets Separate, and different processes are
used to make them?
A
hybrid
Question Source
309
Q
What class amplifier is commonly used as a
push-pill amplifier to overcome crossover
distortion of a Class B amplifier?
A
AB
Question Source
310
Q
What class amplifier allows current flow for 360
degrees Of input signal and output is 180 degrees
out of phase With the input?
A
Class A
Question Source
311
Q
What is the process of returning a part of the
output Back to its input?
A
Degeneration or negative feedback
Question Source
312
Q
Name 3 types of bias?
A
Fixed Self Bias
Question Source
313
Q
What type of bias uses a resistor placed between
Collector and supply voltage and the base?
A
fixed
Question Source
314
Q
What type of bias inserts a bias resistor
directly between The base and collector?
A
Self bias
Question Source
315
Q
Amplifier type common base common emitter common
collector i/o phase relationship 0
degrees 180 degrees 0
degrees Voltage Gain high med
low Current Gain low
med high Power Gain low
high med Input Resistance (Z)
low med high Output
Resistance (Z) high med
low
A
Question Source
316
NEETS MODULE 10 CHAPTER 3
317
Q
What component is used to compensate for too
short An antenna?
A
Inductor
Question Source
318
Q
What type antenna is a marconi?
A
Quarter wave
Question Source
319
Q
What type of antenna is a hertz?
A
Half wave
Question Source
320
NEETS MODULE 11 CHAPTER 1
321
Q
What is the frequency in a waveguide that
would Cause angles of incidence and reflection to
be Zero degrees?
A
Cutoff frequency
Question Source
322
Q
The frequency range of a waveguide is determined
by What dimension?
A
a dimension
Question Source
323
Q
What occurs when part of the energy
traveling Down the line is reflected by an
impedance mismatch With the load?
A
Standing waves
Question Source
324
Q
MODES in waveguides are split into what 2
categories?
A
Transverse electric (TE) Transverse magnetic (TM)
Question Source
325
Q
What is the most likely cause of losses in
waveguide systems?
A
Improperly connected joints or damaged inner
surface
Question Source
326
Q
What type of insulator works well at very
high frequencies?
A
A shorted quarter wave section called a metallic
insulator
Question Source
327
Q
At very high frequencies, what characteristics
are Displayed by ordinary insulators?
A
The characteristics of the dielectric of a
capacitor
Question Source